PASSPOINT PRO • CHAMBERLAIN
NR565
NR565 Final Practice Exam 1
100 Questions | Endocrine + Respiratory Emphasis | Answer
Key & Rationales at End
Original A-D multiple-choice practice • Compact PassPoint Pro layout • Detailed medication-safety
rationales
ENDO +
100 KEY
Questions At End
RESP
Focus
Original study and revision material • Clean print-ready format
,PASSPOINT PRO | NR565 ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY FUNDAMENTALS
NR565 Final Practice Exam 1
100 Questions | Endocrine + Respiratory Emphasis | Answer Key & Rationales at End
Directions: Select the single best answer. Focus on the safest prescribing decision for the individual patient. Unless a question
states otherwise, assume standard adult dosing principles and that all relevant clinical information has been provided.
1. Which adverse-effect profile is most important for the prescriber to recognize with propylthiouracil (PTU)?
A. esophagitis and rare osteonecrosis of the jaw or atypical femur fracture with prolonged use
B. excess dosing causes symptoms of hyperthyroidism such as palpitations, tremor, and bone loss over time
C. serious hepatotoxicity and agranulocytosis
D. hypoglycemia, especially if food intake is delayed or reduced
2. A 71-year-old patient is being managed in primary care. a patient starts albuterol. Which monitoring plan
is most appropriate for safe follow-up?
A. daytime/nighttime symptoms and rescue-inhaler use
B. symptom relief and frequency of rescue use
C. weight, mood, and exacerbation frequency
D. asthma control and new neuropsychiatric symptoms
3. Which patient-teaching statement is most appropriate for a new prescription of theophylline?
A. use for quick relief; frequent need signals poor control and should prompt reassessment
B. use regularly for maintenance, not as a rescue inhaler; avoid spraying mist into the eyes
C. avoid abrupt changes in smoking status and check before starting interacting medicines
D. report significant weight loss or mood changes; it is not a rescue bronchodilator
4. A 35-year-old patient is being managed in primary care. which situation should make the prescriber avoid
or use particular caution with sucralfate?
A. combining multiple QT-prolonging risks without assessment
B. choosing a regimen without considering prior macrolide exposure, local resistance, allergies, and interactions
C. history of tardive dyskinesia or conditions where increased GI motility is unsafe
D. close coadministration with drugs whose absorption is reduced by sucralfate
5. Which interaction or coadministration issue is most relevant to mesalamine?
A. combining with other potent biologic immunosuppressants can increase infection risk
B. fewer CYP interactions than cimetidine
C. other nephrotoxic drugs may increase renal risk
D. binds many oral medications, including some antibiotics and levothyroxine
6. A patient seen in primary care is being managed in primary care. at a follow-up visit after starting kava,
which information should receive the highest priority when evaluating efficacy and safety?
A. mood symptoms and a complete medication-interaction review
B. bleeding/bruising and medication interactions
C. liver-related symptoms and CNS depression
D. sleep timing, daytime impairment, and interaction with sedatives
7. A 54-year-old adult is being managed in primary care. a patient taking insulin lispro calls the clinic. Which
possible medication-related problem is most consistent with this therapy?
A. nausea/vomiting; risk of gallbladder disease and rare pancreatitis; class warning for thyroid C-cell tumors in susceptible
patients
B. gastrointestinal upset; rare lactic acidosis risk rises with severe renal dysfunction or hypoxia
C. hypercalcemia and hyperphosphatemia
D. hypoglycemia, especially if food intake is delayed or reduced
8. A 54-year-old adult is being managed in primary care. the NP is completing medication reconciliation for a
patient using methimazole. Which counseling point should be reinforced?
A. report jaundice, dark urine, fever, or sore throat promptly
B. take with food; do not abruptly stop long-term therapy; report infection symptoms
C. stop the drug and seek prompt evaluation for fever or sore throat because a CBC may be needed
D. report persistent severe abdominal pain or disabling joint pain
9. A patient is being evaluated for medication therapy. Which clinical use best matches glucagon?
A. severe hypoglycemia when the patient cannot safely take oral glucose
B. sometimes self-used for mild depressive symptoms, though product quality and evidence vary and it is not a substitute for
appropriate evaluation
C. selected nausea syndromes and diabetic gastroparesis when benefits outweigh neurologic risk
D. central diabetes insipidus and selected other indications where antidiuretic effect is desired
10. Which statement best describes the primary pharmacologic action of montelukast?
A. blocks cysteinyl leukotriene receptors, reducing leukotriene-mediated inflammation and bronchoconstriction
Original practice material for study and review Page39
Page 2
, PASSPOINT PRO | NR565 ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY FUNDAMENTALS
B. stimulates beta2 receptors to relax bronchial smooth muscle
C. systemically suppresses inflammatory gene expression
D. blocks muscarinic receptors to reduce vagally mediated bronchoconstriction
11. Which adverse-effect profile is most important for the prescriber to recognize with ondansetron?
A. constipation, headache, and QT prolongation in susceptible patients
B. headache, GI upset, and rare kidney injury
C. GI upset and regimen-specific antibiotic adverse effects
D. abdominal cramping and diarrhea
12. A 48-year-old adult is being managed in primary care. a patient starts H. pylori eradication therapy.
Which monitoring plan is most appropriate for safe follow-up?
A. symptom control and ECG/electrolytes when significant QT risk is present
B. renal function for dose adjustment and symptom response
C. frequency of use and renal function when repeated use is considered
D. adherence and confirmation of eradication after therapy using an appropriate test and timing
13. Which patient-teaching statement is most appropriate for a new prescription of echinacea?
A. seek evaluation for jaundice, dark urine, or persistent symptoms and discuss use if there is a history of liver disease
B. disclose use before surgery or dental procedures and when taking anticoagulants or antiplatelet drugs
C. do not assume it replaces vaccination or evidence-based treatment and disclose use with immunosuppressive therapy
D. tell clinicians before procedures and if taking anticoagulants or antiplatelet drugs
14. A 48-year-old adult is being managed in primary care. which situation should make the prescriber avoid
or use particular caution with empagliflozin?
A. active ketoacidosis and use caution in marked volume depletion
B. severe renal impairment or acute conditions associated with hypoxia/poor perfusion
C. untreated adrenal insufficiency and aggressive over-replacement in patients at cardiac risk
D. giving a meal dose when the patient cannot eat unless specifically directed in a correction plan
15. Which interaction or coadministration issue is most relevant to alendronate?
A. changes in thyroid state can alter anticoagulant requirements
B. calcium, antacids, and food markedly reduce absorption
C. diuretics can increase risk of volume depletion and hypotension
D. CYP3A4 inducers may reduce steroid exposure and efficacy
16. A patient seen in primary care is being managed in primary care. at a follow-up visit after starting
salmeterol, which information should receive the highest priority when evaluating efficacy and safety?
A. asthma control, exacerbation frequency, and local adverse effects
B. clinical response, glucose in at-risk patients, and adverse effects
C. breathing symptoms and anticholinergic adverse effects
D. daytime/nighttime symptoms and rescue-inhaler use
17. A patient returning for medication follow-up is being managed in primary care. a patient taking
omalizumab calls the clinic. Which possible medication-related problem is most consistent with this therapy?
A. tremor, tachycardia, and hypokalemia at high doses
B. oral candidiasis and dysphonia; systemic effects are possible at high doses
C. neuropsychiatric reactions can occur, including mood or behavior changes
D. injection-site reactions and rare anaphylaxis
18. A 71-year-old patient is being managed in primary care. the NP is completing medication reconciliation
for a patient using aluminum/magnesium antacid. Which counseling point should be reinforced?
A. take before meals as directed and use the lowest effective long-term regimen when appropriate
B. mix the measured dose in fluid and allow time for effect; maintain appropriate fluid intake
C. use consistently even when symptoms improve and report reduced urine output or unexplained swelling
D. separate from many prescription medicines by at least a couple of hours as directed
19. A patient is being evaluated for medication therapy. Which clinical use best matches infliximab?
A. mealtime and correction insulin coverage
B. moderate-to-severe inflammatory bowel disease when biologic therapy is appropriate
C. marketed for prevention or treatment of common cold symptoms, although benefit is inconsistent
D. selected ulcer disease when a protective barrier is desired
20. Which statement best describes the primary pharmacologic action of valerian?
A. appears to affect monoamine neurotransmission and strongly induces several drug-metabolizing enzymes/transporters
B. may modulate GABA-related CNS activity
C. activates melatonin receptors involved in circadian rhythm signaling
D. contains flavonoids/terpenoids with antioxidant and platelet-activating-factor effects
21. Which adverse-effect profile is most important for the prescriber to recognize with sitagliptin?
Original practice material for study and review Page40
Page 3
NR565
NR565 Final Practice Exam 1
100 Questions | Endocrine + Respiratory Emphasis | Answer
Key & Rationales at End
Original A-D multiple-choice practice • Compact PassPoint Pro layout • Detailed medication-safety
rationales
ENDO +
100 KEY
Questions At End
RESP
Focus
Original study and revision material • Clean print-ready format
,PASSPOINT PRO | NR565 ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY FUNDAMENTALS
NR565 Final Practice Exam 1
100 Questions | Endocrine + Respiratory Emphasis | Answer Key & Rationales at End
Directions: Select the single best answer. Focus on the safest prescribing decision for the individual patient. Unless a question
states otherwise, assume standard adult dosing principles and that all relevant clinical information has been provided.
1. Which adverse-effect profile is most important for the prescriber to recognize with propylthiouracil (PTU)?
A. esophagitis and rare osteonecrosis of the jaw or atypical femur fracture with prolonged use
B. excess dosing causes symptoms of hyperthyroidism such as palpitations, tremor, and bone loss over time
C. serious hepatotoxicity and agranulocytosis
D. hypoglycemia, especially if food intake is delayed or reduced
2. A 71-year-old patient is being managed in primary care. a patient starts albuterol. Which monitoring plan
is most appropriate for safe follow-up?
A. daytime/nighttime symptoms and rescue-inhaler use
B. symptom relief and frequency of rescue use
C. weight, mood, and exacerbation frequency
D. asthma control and new neuropsychiatric symptoms
3. Which patient-teaching statement is most appropriate for a new prescription of theophylline?
A. use for quick relief; frequent need signals poor control and should prompt reassessment
B. use regularly for maintenance, not as a rescue inhaler; avoid spraying mist into the eyes
C. avoid abrupt changes in smoking status and check before starting interacting medicines
D. report significant weight loss or mood changes; it is not a rescue bronchodilator
4. A 35-year-old patient is being managed in primary care. which situation should make the prescriber avoid
or use particular caution with sucralfate?
A. combining multiple QT-prolonging risks without assessment
B. choosing a regimen without considering prior macrolide exposure, local resistance, allergies, and interactions
C. history of tardive dyskinesia or conditions where increased GI motility is unsafe
D. close coadministration with drugs whose absorption is reduced by sucralfate
5. Which interaction or coadministration issue is most relevant to mesalamine?
A. combining with other potent biologic immunosuppressants can increase infection risk
B. fewer CYP interactions than cimetidine
C. other nephrotoxic drugs may increase renal risk
D. binds many oral medications, including some antibiotics and levothyroxine
6. A patient seen in primary care is being managed in primary care. at a follow-up visit after starting kava,
which information should receive the highest priority when evaluating efficacy and safety?
A. mood symptoms and a complete medication-interaction review
B. bleeding/bruising and medication interactions
C. liver-related symptoms and CNS depression
D. sleep timing, daytime impairment, and interaction with sedatives
7. A 54-year-old adult is being managed in primary care. a patient taking insulin lispro calls the clinic. Which
possible medication-related problem is most consistent with this therapy?
A. nausea/vomiting; risk of gallbladder disease and rare pancreatitis; class warning for thyroid C-cell tumors in susceptible
patients
B. gastrointestinal upset; rare lactic acidosis risk rises with severe renal dysfunction or hypoxia
C. hypercalcemia and hyperphosphatemia
D. hypoglycemia, especially if food intake is delayed or reduced
8. A 54-year-old adult is being managed in primary care. the NP is completing medication reconciliation for a
patient using methimazole. Which counseling point should be reinforced?
A. report jaundice, dark urine, fever, or sore throat promptly
B. take with food; do not abruptly stop long-term therapy; report infection symptoms
C. stop the drug and seek prompt evaluation for fever or sore throat because a CBC may be needed
D. report persistent severe abdominal pain or disabling joint pain
9. A patient is being evaluated for medication therapy. Which clinical use best matches glucagon?
A. severe hypoglycemia when the patient cannot safely take oral glucose
B. sometimes self-used for mild depressive symptoms, though product quality and evidence vary and it is not a substitute for
appropriate evaluation
C. selected nausea syndromes and diabetic gastroparesis when benefits outweigh neurologic risk
D. central diabetes insipidus and selected other indications where antidiuretic effect is desired
10. Which statement best describes the primary pharmacologic action of montelukast?
A. blocks cysteinyl leukotriene receptors, reducing leukotriene-mediated inflammation and bronchoconstriction
Original practice material for study and review Page39
Page 2
, PASSPOINT PRO | NR565 ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY FUNDAMENTALS
B. stimulates beta2 receptors to relax bronchial smooth muscle
C. systemically suppresses inflammatory gene expression
D. blocks muscarinic receptors to reduce vagally mediated bronchoconstriction
11. Which adverse-effect profile is most important for the prescriber to recognize with ondansetron?
A. constipation, headache, and QT prolongation in susceptible patients
B. headache, GI upset, and rare kidney injury
C. GI upset and regimen-specific antibiotic adverse effects
D. abdominal cramping and diarrhea
12. A 48-year-old adult is being managed in primary care. a patient starts H. pylori eradication therapy.
Which monitoring plan is most appropriate for safe follow-up?
A. symptom control and ECG/electrolytes when significant QT risk is present
B. renal function for dose adjustment and symptom response
C. frequency of use and renal function when repeated use is considered
D. adherence and confirmation of eradication after therapy using an appropriate test and timing
13. Which patient-teaching statement is most appropriate for a new prescription of echinacea?
A. seek evaluation for jaundice, dark urine, or persistent symptoms and discuss use if there is a history of liver disease
B. disclose use before surgery or dental procedures and when taking anticoagulants or antiplatelet drugs
C. do not assume it replaces vaccination or evidence-based treatment and disclose use with immunosuppressive therapy
D. tell clinicians before procedures and if taking anticoagulants or antiplatelet drugs
14. A 48-year-old adult is being managed in primary care. which situation should make the prescriber avoid
or use particular caution with empagliflozin?
A. active ketoacidosis and use caution in marked volume depletion
B. severe renal impairment or acute conditions associated with hypoxia/poor perfusion
C. untreated adrenal insufficiency and aggressive over-replacement in patients at cardiac risk
D. giving a meal dose when the patient cannot eat unless specifically directed in a correction plan
15. Which interaction or coadministration issue is most relevant to alendronate?
A. changes in thyroid state can alter anticoagulant requirements
B. calcium, antacids, and food markedly reduce absorption
C. diuretics can increase risk of volume depletion and hypotension
D. CYP3A4 inducers may reduce steroid exposure and efficacy
16. A patient seen in primary care is being managed in primary care. at a follow-up visit after starting
salmeterol, which information should receive the highest priority when evaluating efficacy and safety?
A. asthma control, exacerbation frequency, and local adverse effects
B. clinical response, glucose in at-risk patients, and adverse effects
C. breathing symptoms and anticholinergic adverse effects
D. daytime/nighttime symptoms and rescue-inhaler use
17. A patient returning for medication follow-up is being managed in primary care. a patient taking
omalizumab calls the clinic. Which possible medication-related problem is most consistent with this therapy?
A. tremor, tachycardia, and hypokalemia at high doses
B. oral candidiasis and dysphonia; systemic effects are possible at high doses
C. neuropsychiatric reactions can occur, including mood or behavior changes
D. injection-site reactions and rare anaphylaxis
18. A 71-year-old patient is being managed in primary care. the NP is completing medication reconciliation
for a patient using aluminum/magnesium antacid. Which counseling point should be reinforced?
A. take before meals as directed and use the lowest effective long-term regimen when appropriate
B. mix the measured dose in fluid and allow time for effect; maintain appropriate fluid intake
C. use consistently even when symptoms improve and report reduced urine output or unexplained swelling
D. separate from many prescription medicines by at least a couple of hours as directed
19. A patient is being evaluated for medication therapy. Which clinical use best matches infliximab?
A. mealtime and correction insulin coverage
B. moderate-to-severe inflammatory bowel disease when biologic therapy is appropriate
C. marketed for prevention or treatment of common cold symptoms, although benefit is inconsistent
D. selected ulcer disease when a protective barrier is desired
20. Which statement best describes the primary pharmacologic action of valerian?
A. appears to affect monoamine neurotransmission and strongly induces several drug-metabolizing enzymes/transporters
B. may modulate GABA-related CNS activity
C. activates melatonin receptors involved in circadian rhythm signaling
D. contains flavonoids/terpenoids with antioxidant and platelet-activating-factor effects
21. Which adverse-effect profile is most important for the prescriber to recognize with sitagliptin?
Original practice material for study and review Page40
Page 3
