2026/2027 | Exam Questions and
Verified Answers with Detailed
Rationales
ATI MATERNAL NEWBORN NURSING EXAM 2026/2027 | EXAM QUESTIONS AND
VERIFIED ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES
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• This comprehensive exam contains practice questions designed to test your
knowledge across all major maternal newborn nursing competencies, aligned with
ATI standards and NCLEX-RN frameworks.
• Study by reviewing each question carefully, attempting to answer before checking
the rationale, and noting areas requiring further review for mastery.
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1. A 28-year-old gravida 2, para 1 woman presents to the prenatal clinic at 32
weeks of gestation with a blood pressure of 158/102 mmHg, proteinuria of 2+,
and reported headaches. Which classification best describes this client's
condition?
A) Gestational hypertension
B) Chronic hypertension
C) Preeclampsia
D) HELLP syndrome
E) Eclampsia
✓ CORRECT ANSWER: C) Preeclampsia
Rationale: Preeclampsia is characterized by the presence of hypertension (≥140/90
mmHg) and proteinuria after 20 weeks of gestation in a previously normotensive
client. The combination of elevated blood pressure (158/102), proteinuria (2+), and
symptoms (headaches) fulfill the diagnostic criteria for preeclampsia. HELLP
syndrome is a severe form of preeclampsia with hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes,
,and low platelets. Eclampsia involves seizures in addition to preeclamptic
symptoms. Gestational hypertension lacks proteinuria, and chronic hypertension
predates pregnancy.
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2. A client at 20 weeks gestation is being monitored for gestational diabetes
mellitus. Which finding would indicate inadequate glucose control?
A) Fasting blood glucose of 95 mg/dL
B) Random blood glucose of 210 mg/dL
C) Postprandial blood glucose of 120 mg/dL
D) HbA1c of 6.0%
E) Fasting blood glucose of 100 mg/dL
✓ CORRECT ANSWER: B) Random blood glucose of 210 mg/dL
Rationale: A random blood glucose of 210 mg/dL significantly exceeds normal
limits and indicates inadequate glucose control in pregnancy. Normal fasting
glucose should be <95 mg/dL, and random glucose should be <140 mg/dL in
pregnant clients with gestational diabetes. Postprandial glucose of 120 mg/dL is
acceptable (goal <120 mg/dL). HbA1c of 6.0% is acceptable (goal <6.5%). Fasting
glucose of 100 mg/dL is slightly elevated but borderline and may be acceptable
depending on other readings and clinical assessment.
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3. A gravida 1 client at 28 weeks gestation receives instructions on fetal
movement counts. How many movements should she expect to feel in a 2-
hour period?
A) Minimum of 3 movements
B) Minimum of 5 movements
C) Minimum of 10 movements
,D) Minimum of 15 movements
E) Movement patterns vary too much to establish a baseline
✓ CORRECT ANSWER: C) Minimum of 10 movements
Rationale: The recommended threshold for fetal kick counts is a minimum of 10
movements in a 2-hour period, although some sources use 10 movements in 12
hours as alternative guidance. If the client perceives fewer than 10 movements in 2
hours, she should be instructed to contact her healthcare provider for further
evaluation, as diminished fetal movement may indicate fetal compromise. While
fetal movement patterns do vary among individuals, establishing a baseline and
recognizing changes is clinically significant. This assessment helps detect fetal
distress early.
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4. A client in active labor receives oxytocin augmentation for arrest of dilation
at 6 cm for 3 hours. Which nursing action is most appropriate regarding fetal
monitoring during oxytocin administration?
A) Monitor fetal heart rate every 30 minutes
B) Perform intermittent monitoring every 15 minutes
C) Use continuous electronic fetal monitoring
D) Auscultate fetal heart rate with Doppler every hour
E) Monitor only if complications develop
✓ CORRECT ANSWER: C) Use continuous electronic fetal monitoring
Rationale: Continuous electronic fetal monitoring is the standard of care when
oxytocin is administered during labor. Oxytocin increases uterine contractility and
can lead to uterine hyperstimulation, which may compromise placental perfusion
and fetal oxygenation. Continuous monitoring allows immediate detection of
nonreassuring fetal heart rate patterns such as late decelerations, variable
decelerations, or decreased variability that indicate fetal distress. Intermittent
, monitoring is inadequate during augmentation therapy. The other options do not
meet current standards of care for oxytocin administration.
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5. A multiparous client at 36 weeks gestation presents with painless vaginal
bleeding. Fetal heart tones are 144 bpm and reactive. Vital signs are stable.
Which condition should the nurse suspect?
A) Placental abruption
B) Placenta previa
C) Subchorionic hemorrhage
D) Uterine rupture
E) Cervicitis
✓ CORRECT ANSWER: B) Placenta previa
Rationale: Placenta previa is characterized by painless vaginal bleeding in the third
trimester when the placenta covers all or part of the cervical opening. The absence
of pain, stable vital signs, and normal fetal status are consistent with placenta
previa, which typically manifests as intermittent bleeding without accompanying
pain. Placental abruption presents with painful vaginal bleeding, uterine
tenderness, and often signs of fetal distress. Uterine rupture presents with severe
pain, signs of hypovolemic shock, and fetal distress. Subchorionic hemorrhage may
not present with vaginal bleeding, and cervicitis presents with cervical inflammation
and discharge rather than significant bleeding.
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6. A client delivered vaginally 4 hours ago. The nurse observes lochia rubra.
Which statement accurately describes lochia rubra?
A) Dark brown discharge consisting primarily of serous fluid
B) Bright red discharge containing blood, decidua, and tissue fragments
C) Pink or brownish discharge lasting up to 2 weeks postpartum