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Galen College NUR 243 Maternal Pregnancy Complications Exam 2 Practice 100 Questions with Answers & Rationales 2026/2027

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Galen College NUR 243 Maternal Pregnancy Complications Exam 2 Practice 100 Questions with Answers & Rationales 2026/2027 Practice questions 1 to 4 1. A client at 30 weeks has BP 168/112 mm Hg and severe headache. What is the priority? A. Exercise to lower pressure B. Urgent obstetric assessment and escalation C. Unrestricted oral fluids D. Routine follow-up next month 2. Which laboratory pattern supports HELLP syndrome? A. Low creatinine, high potassium, high platelets B. Hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low platelets C. Low glucose, high calcium, high platelets D. High hemoglobin, low sodium, normal liver enzymes 3. A client with preeclampsia reports right upper quadrant pain. What should the nurse do? A. Give food and postpone assessment B. Report promptly and assess for worsening disease C. Ignore it if there is no vaginal bleeding D. Assume uncomplicated heartburn 4. Why is magnesium sulfate given for severe preeclampsia? A. To prevent seizures B. To correct anemia C. To increase uterine contractions D. To replace antihypertensive treatment 5. Which finding suggests magnesium toxicity? A. Normal urine output and alertness B. Mild flushing with stable assessment C. Absent reflexes with respiratory depression D. Brisk reflexes with normal breathing 6. While magnesium is infusing, a client has respirations of 8/minute. What is the priority?

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Galen College NUR 243 Maternal Pregnancy Complications Exam 2
Practice 100 Questions with Answers & Rationales 2026/2027

Practice questions 1 to 4
1. A client at 30 weeks has BP 168/112 mm Hg and severe headache. What is the
priority?
A. Exercise to lower pressure
B. Urgent obstetric assessment and escalation
C. Unrestricted oral fluids
D. Routine follow-up next month

2. Which laboratory pattern supports HELLP syndrome?
A. Low creatinine, high potassium, high platelets
B. Hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low platelets
C. Low glucose, high calcium, high platelets
D. High hemoglobin, low sodium, normal liver enzymes

3. A client with preeclampsia reports right upper quadrant pain. What should
the nurse do?
A. Give food and postpone assessment
B. Report promptly and assess for worsening disease
C. Ignore it if there is no vaginal bleeding
D. Assume uncomplicated heartburn

4. Why is magnesium sulfate given for severe preeclampsia?
A. To prevent seizures
B. To correct anemia
C. To increase uterine contractions
D. To replace antihypertensive treatment

,5. Which finding suggests magnesium toxicity?
A. Normal urine output and alertness
B. Mild flushing with stable assessment
C. Absent reflexes with respiratory depression
D. Brisk reflexes with normal breathing

6. While magnesium is infusing, a client has respirations of 8/minute. What is
the priority?
A. Increase the rate
B. Give oral water
C. Stop the infusion, support breathing, and obtain urgent help
D. Recheck after one hour

7. Which medication should be available for significant magnesium toxicity?
A. Oxytocin
B. Calcium gluconate
C. Misoprostol
D. Methylergonovine

8. Which assessment is especially important during magnesium infusion?
A. Visual acuity alone
B. Hair growth
C. Respirations, reflexes, and urine output
D. Fundal height alone

,Practice questions 9 to 12
9. Why does oliguria increase concern during magnesium treatment?
A. Low output guarantees normal magnesium levels
B. Magnesium is excreted mainly through sweat
C. Renal clearance of magnesium may decline
D. Oliguria prevents all seizures

10. A pregnant client has an eclamptic seizure. What should the nurse do?
A. Insert a tongue blade
B. Give oral medication during convulsions
C. Restrain every limb
D. Call for help, protect from injury, and support airway safety

11. Which assessment helps detect pulmonary edema in preeclampsia?
A. Lung sounds and respiratory status
B. Only cervical dilation
C. Only ankle circumference
D. Only fetal sex

12. A client with severe preeclampsia receives IV fluids. Which approach is
appropriate?
A. Stop all fluid monitoring
B. Give unlimited boluses regardless of assessment
C. Carefully monitor prescribed intake and signs of overload
D. Use thirst alone to set the rate

, Practice questions 13 to 16
13. Which statement indicates understanding after a hypertensive pregnancy?
A. I can stop every medicine on my own
B. Postpartum symptoms cannot be related to pregnancy
C. I will report severe headache or vision changes after birth
D. Delivery eliminates every blood pressure risk immediately

14. A client asks about low-dose aspirin prescribed for preeclampsia
prevention. Which response is best?
A. Start any dose independently
B. It replaces all prenatal visits
C. It treats active eclamptic seizures
D. Take it as prescribed after individualized risk assessment

15. Which condition raises preeclampsia risk?
A. Corrected nearsightedness
B. Remote uncomplicated appendectomy
C. Seasonal pollen allergy alone
D. Chronic hypertension

16. A client has elevated BP after 20 weeks but no proteinuria. Which statement
is correct?
A. Proteinuria is mandatory in every case
B. A normal urine dipstick excludes all disease
C. No follow-up is needed
D. Preeclampsia can still occur with qualifying organ dysfunction

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