TXST NURS 5210 Advanced Health Assessment Practicum:
Exam 1 - Questions with Correct Answers
100 questions
1. A focused exam is appropriate when:
A. The patient presents with a specific complaint
B. Performing an annual comprehensive exam
C. Admitting to hospital always
D. Never
Correct Answer: A. The patient presents with a specific complaint
Rationale: Problem-oriented.
2. Likelihood ratios help clinicians:
A. Estimate how much a test result changes the probability of disease
B. Calculate drug doses
C. Measure blood pressure
D. Code diagnoses
Correct Answer: A. Estimate how much a test result changes the probability of disease
Rationale: Evidence-based diagnosis.
3. The most important source of data for most diagnoses is:
A. Imaging
B. The history
C. Laboratory tests
D. Family opinions
Correct Answer: B. The history
Rationale: History drives diagnosis.
4. Premature closure is:
A. Accepting a diagnosis before it is fully verified
B. Delaying diagnosis
C. Ordering too few tests always
D. Referring to specialists
Correct Answer: A. Accepting a diagnosis before it is fully verified
Rationale: Cognitive error.
5. Specificity of a test refers to:
A. True positive rate
B. Test price
C. The ability to correctly identify those without the disease (true negative rate)
D. Patient comfort
Correct Answer: C. The ability to correctly identify those without the disease (true negative
rate)
Rationale: SpPin.
6. Sensitivity of a test refers to:
A. The ability to identify those without disease
B. Cost
C. Speed
D. The ability to correctly identify those with the disease (true positive rate)
Correct Answer: D. The ability to correctly identify those with the disease (true positive rate)
Rationale: SnNout.
,7. The AUDIT-C is used to screen for:
A. Depression
B. Anxiety
C. Dementia
D. Unhealthy alcohol use
Correct Answer: D. Unhealthy alcohol use
Rationale: Alcohol screening.
8. The Patient Health Questionnaire-2 screens for:
A. Anxiety only
B. Depression
C. Alcohol use
D. Cognitive impairment
Correct Answer: B. Depression
Rationale: PHQ-2.
9. Nail pitting is commonly associated with:
A. Iron deficiency
B. COPD
C. Anemia
D. Psoriasis
Correct Answer: D. Psoriasis
Rationale: Psoriatic nails.
10. Erysipelas differs from cellulitis because erysipelas has:
A. Poorly defined borders
B. No erythema
C. Silvery scale
D. Sharply demarcated, raised borders
Correct Answer: D. Sharply demarcated, raised borders
Rationale: Superficial.
11. Beau's lines are:
A. Longitudinal pigmented bands
B. Transverse grooves reflecting temporary arrest of nail growth from systemic illness
C. Spoon nails
D. Clubbing
Correct Answer: B. Transverse grooves reflecting temporary arrest of nail growth from
systemic illness
Rationale: Systemic stress.
12. Splinter hemorrhages in the nail bed may indicate:
A. Iron deficiency
B. Infective endocarditis (or trauma)
C. Psoriasis only
D. Hypothyroidism
Correct Answer: B. Infective endocarditis (or trauma)
Rationale: Embolic.
, 13. Tender, mobile, enlarged lymph nodes suggest:
A. Malignancy always
B. Normal aging
C. Dehydration
D. Infection or inflammation
Correct Answer: D. Infection or inflammation
Rationale: Reactive.
14. Tinea corporis appears as:
A. Pearly papule
B. Vesicular dermatome rash
C. Silvery plaque
D. An annular scaly plaque with central clearing
Correct Answer: D. An annular scaly plaque with central clearing
Rationale: Ringworm.
15. Actinic keratosis is:
A. A benign cyst
B. A viral wart
C. A rough, scaly premalignant lesion on sun-exposed skin
D. A fungal infection
Correct Answer: C. A rough, scaly premalignant lesion on sun-exposed skin
Rationale: Can progress to SCC.
16. Purpura that does not blanch may indicate:
A. Bleeding disorders or vasculitis
B. Normal skin
C. Allergy only
D. Sunburn
Correct Answer: A. Bleeding disorders or vasculitis
Rationale: Evaluate.
17. Exophthalmos is commonly associated with:
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Diabetes
C. Graves' disease
D. Glaucoma
Correct Answer: C. Graves' disease
Rationale: Thyroid eye disease.
18. Arteriovenous nicking on fundoscopy suggests:
A. Diabetic retinopathy only
B. Glaucoma
C. Hypertensive retinopathy
D. Macular degeneration
Correct Answer: C. Hypertensive retinopathy
Rationale: Hypertension.
Exam 1 - Questions with Correct Answers
100 questions
1. A focused exam is appropriate when:
A. The patient presents with a specific complaint
B. Performing an annual comprehensive exam
C. Admitting to hospital always
D. Never
Correct Answer: A. The patient presents with a specific complaint
Rationale: Problem-oriented.
2. Likelihood ratios help clinicians:
A. Estimate how much a test result changes the probability of disease
B. Calculate drug doses
C. Measure blood pressure
D. Code diagnoses
Correct Answer: A. Estimate how much a test result changes the probability of disease
Rationale: Evidence-based diagnosis.
3. The most important source of data for most diagnoses is:
A. Imaging
B. The history
C. Laboratory tests
D. Family opinions
Correct Answer: B. The history
Rationale: History drives diagnosis.
4. Premature closure is:
A. Accepting a diagnosis before it is fully verified
B. Delaying diagnosis
C. Ordering too few tests always
D. Referring to specialists
Correct Answer: A. Accepting a diagnosis before it is fully verified
Rationale: Cognitive error.
5. Specificity of a test refers to:
A. True positive rate
B. Test price
C. The ability to correctly identify those without the disease (true negative rate)
D. Patient comfort
Correct Answer: C. The ability to correctly identify those without the disease (true negative
rate)
Rationale: SpPin.
6. Sensitivity of a test refers to:
A. The ability to identify those without disease
B. Cost
C. Speed
D. The ability to correctly identify those with the disease (true positive rate)
Correct Answer: D. The ability to correctly identify those with the disease (true positive rate)
Rationale: SnNout.
,7. The AUDIT-C is used to screen for:
A. Depression
B. Anxiety
C. Dementia
D. Unhealthy alcohol use
Correct Answer: D. Unhealthy alcohol use
Rationale: Alcohol screening.
8. The Patient Health Questionnaire-2 screens for:
A. Anxiety only
B. Depression
C. Alcohol use
D. Cognitive impairment
Correct Answer: B. Depression
Rationale: PHQ-2.
9. Nail pitting is commonly associated with:
A. Iron deficiency
B. COPD
C. Anemia
D. Psoriasis
Correct Answer: D. Psoriasis
Rationale: Psoriatic nails.
10. Erysipelas differs from cellulitis because erysipelas has:
A. Poorly defined borders
B. No erythema
C. Silvery scale
D. Sharply demarcated, raised borders
Correct Answer: D. Sharply demarcated, raised borders
Rationale: Superficial.
11. Beau's lines are:
A. Longitudinal pigmented bands
B. Transverse grooves reflecting temporary arrest of nail growth from systemic illness
C. Spoon nails
D. Clubbing
Correct Answer: B. Transverse grooves reflecting temporary arrest of nail growth from
systemic illness
Rationale: Systemic stress.
12. Splinter hemorrhages in the nail bed may indicate:
A. Iron deficiency
B. Infective endocarditis (or trauma)
C. Psoriasis only
D. Hypothyroidism
Correct Answer: B. Infective endocarditis (or trauma)
Rationale: Embolic.
, 13. Tender, mobile, enlarged lymph nodes suggest:
A. Malignancy always
B. Normal aging
C. Dehydration
D. Infection or inflammation
Correct Answer: D. Infection or inflammation
Rationale: Reactive.
14. Tinea corporis appears as:
A. Pearly papule
B. Vesicular dermatome rash
C. Silvery plaque
D. An annular scaly plaque with central clearing
Correct Answer: D. An annular scaly plaque with central clearing
Rationale: Ringworm.
15. Actinic keratosis is:
A. A benign cyst
B. A viral wart
C. A rough, scaly premalignant lesion on sun-exposed skin
D. A fungal infection
Correct Answer: C. A rough, scaly premalignant lesion on sun-exposed skin
Rationale: Can progress to SCC.
16. Purpura that does not blanch may indicate:
A. Bleeding disorders or vasculitis
B. Normal skin
C. Allergy only
D. Sunburn
Correct Answer: A. Bleeding disorders or vasculitis
Rationale: Evaluate.
17. Exophthalmos is commonly associated with:
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Diabetes
C. Graves' disease
D. Glaucoma
Correct Answer: C. Graves' disease
Rationale: Thyroid eye disease.
18. Arteriovenous nicking on fundoscopy suggests:
A. Diabetic retinopathy only
B. Glaucoma
C. Hypertensive retinopathy
D. Macular degeneration
Correct Answer: C. Hypertensive retinopathy
Rationale: Hypertension.
