NR 511 COMPREHENSIVE CLINICAL
EVALUATION (CEA) EXAM 2026/2027 –
150 VERIFIED QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
WITH DETAILED RATIONALES |
CHAMBERLAIN FNP PREP | INSTANT
DOWNLOAD
1. A 30-year-old woman has a herniated disc at L5-S1 and presents with
suspected cauda equina compression. Which of the following is a sign or
symptom of cauda equina compression?
a. Gastrocnemius weakness
b. Reduced or absent ankle reflexes
c. Numbness of the lateral foot
d. Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks
Answer: d. Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks
Rationale: Cauda equina syndrome is a surgical emergency. Classic findings include
saddle anesthesia (paresthesia in the perineal/buttock area), bowel/bladder
dysfunction, and severe radicular pain.
2. A patient has acute pancreatitis with 7 of the diagnostic criteria from
Ranson's Criteria. What does this score indicate?
a. A high mortality rate
b. An increased chance of recurrence
c. 7% chance of the disease becoming chronic
d. All of the above
Answer: a. A high mortality rate
Rationale: A Ranson's score of 7 or higher is associated with a significantly increased
mortality rate in acute pancreatitis.
3. A 24-year-old patient with HIV has a falling viral load. What does this
indicate?
a. A favorable diagnostic trend
b. Disease progression
c. The need to be more aggressive with medications
d. The eradication of the HIV
,Answer: a. A favorable diagnostic trend
Rationale: A falling viral load indicates that the HIV treatment is working effectively
and the virus is being suppressed.
4. Which is the differentiating symptom between labyrinthitis and vestibular
neuritis?
a. Symptoms with vestibular neuritis are usually acute in onset, whereas with
labyrinthitis the onset is more gradual
b. Hearing loss may be associated with vestibular neuritis, but not with labyrinthitis
c. Symptoms with labyrinthitis are usually acute in onset, whereas with vestibular
neuritis the onset is more gradual
d. Hearing loss may be associated with labyrinthitis, but not with vestibular neuritis
Answer: d. Hearing loss may be associated with labyrinthitis, but not with vestibular
neuritis
Rationale: Labyrinthitis involves both the vestibular and cochlear systems, leading to
hearing loss, while vestibular neuritis only affects the vestibular system.
5. A 27-year-old female presents with burning and pain on urination. What
additional symptoms are consistent with a lower UTI?
a. Back and abdominal pain
b. Fever, chills, costovertebral angle (CVA) tenderness
c. Blood in urine and frequency
d. Foul-smelling discharge, perineal itch
Answer: c. Blood in urine and frequency
Rationale: Lower UTI (cystitis) typically presents with dysuria, frequency, urgency, and
hematuria. Fever and flank pain suggest upper UTI (pyelonephritis).
6. Which obstructive lung disease is classified as reversible?
a. Asthma
b. Chronic bronchitis
c. Emphysema
d. COPD
Answer: a. Asthma
Rationale: Asthma is characterized by reversible airflow obstruction, while COPD
(chronic bronchitis and emphysema) has largely irreversible obstruction.
7. An 82-year-old man complains of dribbling urine and difficulty starting his
stream. Which of the following should be included in the differential?
a. BPH
b. Prostate cancer
c. UTI
d. All of the above
,Answer: d. All of the above
Rationale: Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), prostate cancer, and urinary tract
infection can all present with lower urinary tract symptoms in older men.
8. Which causes the greatest percentage of mammalian bites?
a. Dogs
b. Cats
c. Humans
d. Rodents
Answer: a. Dogs
Rationale: Dog bites are the most common mammalian bites encountered in clinical
practice.
9. Endoscopic report reveals Barrett's epithelium. What should the clinician
explain about this pathology?
a. This is a premalignant tissue
b. This tissue is resistant to gastric acid
c. This tissue supports healing of the esophagus
d. All of the above
Answer: d. All of the above
Rationale: Barrett's esophagus is a premalignant condition where the normal
squamous epithelium is replaced by columnar epithelium, which is more resistant to
acid but carries a risk of adenocarcinoma.
10. Which of the following data are indicative of testicular torsion?
a. Absent cremasteric reflex
b. Pain relieved on testicular elevation
c. Testicle very low in the scrotum
d. Swollen scrotum with a red dot sign
Answer: a. Absent cremasteric reflex
Rationale: Testicular torsion is a surgical emergency. An absent cremasteric reflex is a
classic physical exam finding. Pain is not relieved by elevation (negative Prehn's sign).
11. Most nosocomial pneumonias are caused by:
a. Fungi
b. Viruses
c. Gram-negative bacteria
d. Pneumococcal pneumonia
Answer: c. Gram-negative bacteria
Rationale: Nosocomial (hospital-acquired) pneumonias are most commonly caused by
gram-negative bacteria, which are often more resistant to antibiotics.
, 12. The most common precancerous skin lesion found in Caucasians is:
a. Skin tags
b. Actinic keratosis
c. Melanoma
d. Basal skin lesion
Answer: b. Actinic keratosis
Rationale: Actinic keratosis is a common precancerous skin lesion caused by chronic
sun exposure.
13. Which of the following statements is true concerning the management of a
client with a herniated disc?
a. Muscle relaxants and narcotics can be used to control moderate pain but should
be discontinued after 3 weeks of use
b. An epidural injection is helpful in reducing leg pain that has persisted for at least 3
weeks after the herniation occurred
c. Intolerable pain for more than 3 months is an indication for surgical intervention
d. All of the above
Answer: c. Intolerable pain for more than 3 months is an indication for surgical
intervention
Rationale: Surgical intervention is generally considered for patients with persistent,
intolerable pain despite conservative management for at least 3 months.
14. After 6 months of Synthroid therapy, the clinician should expect which of
the following in repeat thyroid studies?
a. Elevated TSH
b. Normal TSH
c. Low TSH
d. Undetectable TSH
Answer: b. Normal TSH
Rationale: The goal of levothyroxine (Synthroid) therapy is to normalize TSH levels.
15. The clinician suspects a client has hyperthyroidism. Which tests should be
ordered initially?
a. Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) and free T4
b. TSH and thyrotoxin antibodies
c. High sensitivity TSH and free T4
d. Free T4 and serum calcium
Answer: a. Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) and free T4
Rationale: TSH and free T4 are the initial screening tests for thyroid dysfunction.
EVALUATION (CEA) EXAM 2026/2027 –
150 VERIFIED QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
WITH DETAILED RATIONALES |
CHAMBERLAIN FNP PREP | INSTANT
DOWNLOAD
1. A 30-year-old woman has a herniated disc at L5-S1 and presents with
suspected cauda equina compression. Which of the following is a sign or
symptom of cauda equina compression?
a. Gastrocnemius weakness
b. Reduced or absent ankle reflexes
c. Numbness of the lateral foot
d. Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks
Answer: d. Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks
Rationale: Cauda equina syndrome is a surgical emergency. Classic findings include
saddle anesthesia (paresthesia in the perineal/buttock area), bowel/bladder
dysfunction, and severe radicular pain.
2. A patient has acute pancreatitis with 7 of the diagnostic criteria from
Ranson's Criteria. What does this score indicate?
a. A high mortality rate
b. An increased chance of recurrence
c. 7% chance of the disease becoming chronic
d. All of the above
Answer: a. A high mortality rate
Rationale: A Ranson's score of 7 or higher is associated with a significantly increased
mortality rate in acute pancreatitis.
3. A 24-year-old patient with HIV has a falling viral load. What does this
indicate?
a. A favorable diagnostic trend
b. Disease progression
c. The need to be more aggressive with medications
d. The eradication of the HIV
,Answer: a. A favorable diagnostic trend
Rationale: A falling viral load indicates that the HIV treatment is working effectively
and the virus is being suppressed.
4. Which is the differentiating symptom between labyrinthitis and vestibular
neuritis?
a. Symptoms with vestibular neuritis are usually acute in onset, whereas with
labyrinthitis the onset is more gradual
b. Hearing loss may be associated with vestibular neuritis, but not with labyrinthitis
c. Symptoms with labyrinthitis are usually acute in onset, whereas with vestibular
neuritis the onset is more gradual
d. Hearing loss may be associated with labyrinthitis, but not with vestibular neuritis
Answer: d. Hearing loss may be associated with labyrinthitis, but not with vestibular
neuritis
Rationale: Labyrinthitis involves both the vestibular and cochlear systems, leading to
hearing loss, while vestibular neuritis only affects the vestibular system.
5. A 27-year-old female presents with burning and pain on urination. What
additional symptoms are consistent with a lower UTI?
a. Back and abdominal pain
b. Fever, chills, costovertebral angle (CVA) tenderness
c. Blood in urine and frequency
d. Foul-smelling discharge, perineal itch
Answer: c. Blood in urine and frequency
Rationale: Lower UTI (cystitis) typically presents with dysuria, frequency, urgency, and
hematuria. Fever and flank pain suggest upper UTI (pyelonephritis).
6. Which obstructive lung disease is classified as reversible?
a. Asthma
b. Chronic bronchitis
c. Emphysema
d. COPD
Answer: a. Asthma
Rationale: Asthma is characterized by reversible airflow obstruction, while COPD
(chronic bronchitis and emphysema) has largely irreversible obstruction.
7. An 82-year-old man complains of dribbling urine and difficulty starting his
stream. Which of the following should be included in the differential?
a. BPH
b. Prostate cancer
c. UTI
d. All of the above
,Answer: d. All of the above
Rationale: Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), prostate cancer, and urinary tract
infection can all present with lower urinary tract symptoms in older men.
8. Which causes the greatest percentage of mammalian bites?
a. Dogs
b. Cats
c. Humans
d. Rodents
Answer: a. Dogs
Rationale: Dog bites are the most common mammalian bites encountered in clinical
practice.
9. Endoscopic report reveals Barrett's epithelium. What should the clinician
explain about this pathology?
a. This is a premalignant tissue
b. This tissue is resistant to gastric acid
c. This tissue supports healing of the esophagus
d. All of the above
Answer: d. All of the above
Rationale: Barrett's esophagus is a premalignant condition where the normal
squamous epithelium is replaced by columnar epithelium, which is more resistant to
acid but carries a risk of adenocarcinoma.
10. Which of the following data are indicative of testicular torsion?
a. Absent cremasteric reflex
b. Pain relieved on testicular elevation
c. Testicle very low in the scrotum
d. Swollen scrotum with a red dot sign
Answer: a. Absent cremasteric reflex
Rationale: Testicular torsion is a surgical emergency. An absent cremasteric reflex is a
classic physical exam finding. Pain is not relieved by elevation (negative Prehn's sign).
11. Most nosocomial pneumonias are caused by:
a. Fungi
b. Viruses
c. Gram-negative bacteria
d. Pneumococcal pneumonia
Answer: c. Gram-negative bacteria
Rationale: Nosocomial (hospital-acquired) pneumonias are most commonly caused by
gram-negative bacteria, which are often more resistant to antibiotics.
, 12. The most common precancerous skin lesion found in Caucasians is:
a. Skin tags
b. Actinic keratosis
c. Melanoma
d. Basal skin lesion
Answer: b. Actinic keratosis
Rationale: Actinic keratosis is a common precancerous skin lesion caused by chronic
sun exposure.
13. Which of the following statements is true concerning the management of a
client with a herniated disc?
a. Muscle relaxants and narcotics can be used to control moderate pain but should
be discontinued after 3 weeks of use
b. An epidural injection is helpful in reducing leg pain that has persisted for at least 3
weeks after the herniation occurred
c. Intolerable pain for more than 3 months is an indication for surgical intervention
d. All of the above
Answer: c. Intolerable pain for more than 3 months is an indication for surgical
intervention
Rationale: Surgical intervention is generally considered for patients with persistent,
intolerable pain despite conservative management for at least 3 months.
14. After 6 months of Synthroid therapy, the clinician should expect which of
the following in repeat thyroid studies?
a. Elevated TSH
b. Normal TSH
c. Low TSH
d. Undetectable TSH
Answer: b. Normal TSH
Rationale: The goal of levothyroxine (Synthroid) therapy is to normalize TSH levels.
15. The clinician suspects a client has hyperthyroidism. Which tests should be
ordered initially?
a. Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) and free T4
b. TSH and thyrotoxin antibodies
c. High sensitivity TSH and free T4
d. Free T4 and serum calcium
Answer: a. Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) and free T4
Rationale: TSH and free T4 are the initial screening tests for thyroid dysfunction.
