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WILKES UNIVERSITY | PASSAN SCHOOL OF NURSING
NSG 533 | Advanced Pharmacology
NSG 533 — Advanced Pharmacology Final Exam
Advanced Pharmacology
INSTITUTION Wilkes University | Passan School of Nursing
PROGRAM Graduate Nursing (MSN)
EXAM TITLE Wilkes University NSG 533 Final Exam 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
COURSE TITLE Advanced Pharmacology
COURSE CODE NSG 533
ACADEMIC YEAR 2026/2027
TOTAL QUESTIONS 150 Questions
Core Domains: Pharmacokinetics & Pharmacodynamics • Autonomic Nervous System Pharmacology • Cardiovascular & Renal Pharmacology •
Respiratory Pharmacology • Psychotropic & Neurological Pharmacology • Anti-Infective Pharmacology • Endocrine Pharmacology & Special Populations
Entry-Level & Current Graduate Nursing Professional Focus
Multiple-Choice • Scenario Analysis • Applied Clinical Pharmacology Format
2026/2027 Edition — Aligned with the Wilkes University NSG 533 Advanced Pharmacology curriculum, AACN Essentials of Master's Education, and
evidence-based pharmacology standards
CONTENTS
Domain Content Area Questions
Domain 1 Pharmacokinetics & Pharmacodynamics 25
Domain 2 Autonomic Nervous System Pharmacology 15
Domain 3 Cardiovascular & Renal Pharmacology 30
Domain 4 Respiratory Pharmacology 15
Domain 5 Psychotropic & Neurological Pharmacology 20
Domain 6 Anti-Infective Pharmacology 20
Domain 7 Endocrine Pharmacology & Special Populations 25
TOTAL All Domains 150
© BestSellerStuvia
Academic Year 2026/2027
NSG 533 | 2026/2027
ACTUAL QUESTIONS
Domain 1: Pharmacokinetics & Pharmacodynamics
Question 1. A 70-kg client receives a 350 mg IV bolus of a drug. The plasma concentration immediately
after distribution is 5 mg/L. What is the approximate volume of distribution?
A. 35 L
B. 70 L
C. 175 L
© BestSellerStuvia | | NSG 533 | Academic Year 2026/2027
, © BestSellerStuvia |
D. 7 L
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Vd = Dose / Concentration = 350 mg ÷ 5 mg/L = 70 L.
Question 2. Which kinetic pattern is characterized by a constant amount of drug eliminated per unit
time, independent of concentration?
A. First-order kinetics
B. Zero-order kinetics
C. Michaelis-Menten saturation only at low doses
D. Nonlinear absorption exclusively
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Zero-order kinetics eliminate a fixed amount per time and can lead to dose-dependent toxicity.
Question 3. Why does intravenous administration bypass first-pass metabolism?
A. IV drugs are never metabolized
B. IV administration delivers drug directly into the systemic circulation, avoiding hepatic extraction on the first pass through the
liver
C. Only oral drugs undergo any metabolism
D. First-pass occurs only in the kidney
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: First-pass metabolism occurs when drug absorbed from the gut passes through the liver before systemic circulation.
Question 4. What does drug clearance represent?
A. The time required to eliminate half the drug
B. The volume of blood from which drug is completely removed per unit time
C. The fraction of drug bound to protein
D. The peak plasma concentration
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Clearance is the volume of blood cleared of drug per unit time.
Question 5. How does hypoalbuminemia affect a highly protein-bound drug?
A. Decreases free drug concentration
B. Increases free (unbound) drug concentration and potential toxicity risk
C. Has no effect on free drug levels
D. Only affects renal excretion
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Lower albumin leaves more unbound drug available to exert effects and cause toxicity.
Question 6. What is the primary site of drug metabolism for most drugs?
A. Kidney
B. Liver
C. Lung
D. Intestinal lumen exclusively
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The liver is the major organ of drug metabolism, primarily via CYP450 enzymes.
Question 7. Which CYP450 enzyme is responsible for metabolizing a large proportion of commonly
prescribed drugs?
A. CYP1A2 only
B. CYP3A4
C. CYP2D6 exclusively
D. CYP2C19 only
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: CYP3A4 metabolizes a substantial fraction of clinically used drugs.
Question 8. What is the half-life of a drug?
A. The time to reach steady state exclusively
B. The time required for the plasma concentration to decrease by 50%
C. The duration of the pharmacologic effect only
© BestSellerStuvia | | NSG 533 | Academic Year 2026/2027
, © BestSellerStuvia |
D. The time to complete absorption
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Elimination half-life is the time for plasma concentration to fall by half.
Question 9. Approximately how many half-lives are required to reach steady state with continuous
dosing?
A. 1–2
B. 4–5
C. 10–12
D. 20 or more
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Steady state is approached in about 4–5 half-lives.
Question 10. What is bioavailability?
A. The fraction of administered drug that reaches systemic circulation in unchanged form
B. The volume of distribution
C. The rate of renal clearance only
D. The degree of protein binding
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Bioavailability (F) is the fraction of the dose that reaches systemic circulation intact.
Question 11. Which factor most commonly reduces oral bioavailability?
A. High water solubility only
B. Extensive first-pass metabolism
C. IV administration
D. Low protein binding
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Extensive first-pass hepatic extraction substantially reduces oral bioavailability.
Question 12. What is a prodrug?
A. A drug that is inactive as administered and must be metabolically converted to an active form
B. A drug that is always given intravenously
C. A drug that never undergoes metabolism
D. A drug with zero bioavailability
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Prodrugs are inactive precursors activated by metabolism.
Question 13. Which statement about receptor agonists is accurate?
A. They always block receptors
B. They bind to receptors and produce a response
C. They have no intrinsic activity
D. They only work on enzymes
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Agonists bind receptors and elicit a pharmacologic response.
Question 14. What is the effect of a competitive antagonist?
A. It permanently inactivates the receptor
B. It binds the same site as the agonist and can be overcome by increasing agonist concentration
C. It has intrinsic agonist activity
D. It only affects non-receptor targets
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Competitive antagonists shift the agonist dose-response curve rightward in a surmountable manner.
Question 15. What does a narrow therapeutic index indicate?
A. A wide margin between effective and toxic doses
B. A small difference between therapeutic and toxic concentrations, requiring careful monitoring
C. That the drug is always safe at any dose
D. That monitoring is unnecessary
Correct Answer: A
© BestSellerStuvia | | NSG 533 | Academic Year 2026/2027
WILKES UNIVERSITY | PASSAN SCHOOL OF NURSING
NSG 533 | Advanced Pharmacology
NSG 533 — Advanced Pharmacology Final Exam
Advanced Pharmacology
INSTITUTION Wilkes University | Passan School of Nursing
PROGRAM Graduate Nursing (MSN)
EXAM TITLE Wilkes University NSG 533 Final Exam 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
COURSE TITLE Advanced Pharmacology
COURSE CODE NSG 533
ACADEMIC YEAR 2026/2027
TOTAL QUESTIONS 150 Questions
Core Domains: Pharmacokinetics & Pharmacodynamics • Autonomic Nervous System Pharmacology • Cardiovascular & Renal Pharmacology •
Respiratory Pharmacology • Psychotropic & Neurological Pharmacology • Anti-Infective Pharmacology • Endocrine Pharmacology & Special Populations
Entry-Level & Current Graduate Nursing Professional Focus
Multiple-Choice • Scenario Analysis • Applied Clinical Pharmacology Format
2026/2027 Edition — Aligned with the Wilkes University NSG 533 Advanced Pharmacology curriculum, AACN Essentials of Master's Education, and
evidence-based pharmacology standards
CONTENTS
Domain Content Area Questions
Domain 1 Pharmacokinetics & Pharmacodynamics 25
Domain 2 Autonomic Nervous System Pharmacology 15
Domain 3 Cardiovascular & Renal Pharmacology 30
Domain 4 Respiratory Pharmacology 15
Domain 5 Psychotropic & Neurological Pharmacology 20
Domain 6 Anti-Infective Pharmacology 20
Domain 7 Endocrine Pharmacology & Special Populations 25
TOTAL All Domains 150
© BestSellerStuvia
Academic Year 2026/2027
NSG 533 | 2026/2027
ACTUAL QUESTIONS
Domain 1: Pharmacokinetics & Pharmacodynamics
Question 1. A 70-kg client receives a 350 mg IV bolus of a drug. The plasma concentration immediately
after distribution is 5 mg/L. What is the approximate volume of distribution?
A. 35 L
B. 70 L
C. 175 L
© BestSellerStuvia | | NSG 533 | Academic Year 2026/2027
, © BestSellerStuvia |
D. 7 L
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Vd = Dose / Concentration = 350 mg ÷ 5 mg/L = 70 L.
Question 2. Which kinetic pattern is characterized by a constant amount of drug eliminated per unit
time, independent of concentration?
A. First-order kinetics
B. Zero-order kinetics
C. Michaelis-Menten saturation only at low doses
D. Nonlinear absorption exclusively
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Zero-order kinetics eliminate a fixed amount per time and can lead to dose-dependent toxicity.
Question 3. Why does intravenous administration bypass first-pass metabolism?
A. IV drugs are never metabolized
B. IV administration delivers drug directly into the systemic circulation, avoiding hepatic extraction on the first pass through the
liver
C. Only oral drugs undergo any metabolism
D. First-pass occurs only in the kidney
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: First-pass metabolism occurs when drug absorbed from the gut passes through the liver before systemic circulation.
Question 4. What does drug clearance represent?
A. The time required to eliminate half the drug
B. The volume of blood from which drug is completely removed per unit time
C. The fraction of drug bound to protein
D. The peak plasma concentration
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Clearance is the volume of blood cleared of drug per unit time.
Question 5. How does hypoalbuminemia affect a highly protein-bound drug?
A. Decreases free drug concentration
B. Increases free (unbound) drug concentration and potential toxicity risk
C. Has no effect on free drug levels
D. Only affects renal excretion
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Lower albumin leaves more unbound drug available to exert effects and cause toxicity.
Question 6. What is the primary site of drug metabolism for most drugs?
A. Kidney
B. Liver
C. Lung
D. Intestinal lumen exclusively
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The liver is the major organ of drug metabolism, primarily via CYP450 enzymes.
Question 7. Which CYP450 enzyme is responsible for metabolizing a large proportion of commonly
prescribed drugs?
A. CYP1A2 only
B. CYP3A4
C. CYP2D6 exclusively
D. CYP2C19 only
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: CYP3A4 metabolizes a substantial fraction of clinically used drugs.
Question 8. What is the half-life of a drug?
A. The time to reach steady state exclusively
B. The time required for the plasma concentration to decrease by 50%
C. The duration of the pharmacologic effect only
© BestSellerStuvia | | NSG 533 | Academic Year 2026/2027
, © BestSellerStuvia |
D. The time to complete absorption
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Elimination half-life is the time for plasma concentration to fall by half.
Question 9. Approximately how many half-lives are required to reach steady state with continuous
dosing?
A. 1–2
B. 4–5
C. 10–12
D. 20 or more
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Steady state is approached in about 4–5 half-lives.
Question 10. What is bioavailability?
A. The fraction of administered drug that reaches systemic circulation in unchanged form
B. The volume of distribution
C. The rate of renal clearance only
D. The degree of protein binding
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Bioavailability (F) is the fraction of the dose that reaches systemic circulation intact.
Question 11. Which factor most commonly reduces oral bioavailability?
A. High water solubility only
B. Extensive first-pass metabolism
C. IV administration
D. Low protein binding
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Extensive first-pass hepatic extraction substantially reduces oral bioavailability.
Question 12. What is a prodrug?
A. A drug that is inactive as administered and must be metabolically converted to an active form
B. A drug that is always given intravenously
C. A drug that never undergoes metabolism
D. A drug with zero bioavailability
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Prodrugs are inactive precursors activated by metabolism.
Question 13. Which statement about receptor agonists is accurate?
A. They always block receptors
B. They bind to receptors and produce a response
C. They have no intrinsic activity
D. They only work on enzymes
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Agonists bind receptors and elicit a pharmacologic response.
Question 14. What is the effect of a competitive antagonist?
A. It permanently inactivates the receptor
B. It binds the same site as the agonist and can be overcome by increasing agonist concentration
C. It has intrinsic agonist activity
D. It only affects non-receptor targets
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Competitive antagonists shift the agonist dose-response curve rightward in a surmountable manner.
Question 15. What does a narrow therapeutic index indicate?
A. A wide margin between effective and toxic doses
B. A small difference between therapeutic and toxic concentrations, requiring careful monitoring
C. That the drug is always safe at any dose
D. That monitoring is unnecessary
Correct Answer: A
© BestSellerStuvia | | NSG 533 | Academic Year 2026/2027
