Oregon Direct Entry Midwife Exam
Practice Questions And Correct Answers
(Verified Answers) Plus Rationale 2027
Q&A| Instant Download Pdf.
1. Which principle is fundamental to safe direct-entry midwifery care
throughout pregnancy, labor, birth, and the postpartum period?
A. Avoiding all medical consultation
B. Providing appropriate assessment, monitoring, informed choice, and
timely referral when complications arise
C. Limiting care to labor only
D. Using identical interventions for every client
Rationale: Safe midwifery care requires individualized assessment,
informed decision-making, ongoing monitoring, and timely consultation or
referral when findings exceed the midwife's scope or indicate increased
risk.
2. Which physiologic change normally occurs during pregnancy?
A. Decreased maternal blood volume
B. Decreased cardiac output
C. Increased maternal blood volume
D. Persistent severe bradycardia
,Rationale: Maternal plasma and red-cell volume increase during
pregnancy, supporting uteroplacental circulation and preparing the body
for blood loss associated with birth.
3. Which hormone is primarily responsible for maintaining the
endometrial environment during early pregnancy?
A. Oxytocin
B. Prolactin
C. Progesterone
D. Follicle-stimulating hormone
Rationale: Progesterone supports the endometrium, reduces uterine
contractility, and plays a critical role in maintaining pregnancy,
particularly during early gestation.
4. Human chorionic gonadotropin is produced primarily by the:
A. Maternal pituitary gland
B. Corpus luteum only
C. Placental trophoblastic tissue
D. Fetal adrenal cortex
Rationale: hCG is produced by trophoblastic cells after implantation and
supports the corpus luteum during early pregnancy.
5. Which finding is most concerning during an initial prenatal
assessment?
A. Mild nausea during early pregnancy
B. Increased urinary frequency
C. Heavy vaginal bleeding accompanied by significant abdominal pain
D. Mild breast tenderness
Rationale: Heavy bleeding with significant abdominal pain can indicate
miscarriage, ectopic pregnancy, or another urgent condition requiring
prompt evaluation.
, 6. What is the primary purpose of calculating an estimated due date?
A. Determine the exact day labor will occur
B. Determine fetal sex
C. Provide an approximate gestational age and framework for prenatal and
obstetric assessment
D. Establish the newborn's birth weight
Rationale: An estimated due date provides a reference for assessing fetal
growth, timing prenatal care, interpreting testing, and identifying
pregnancies that extend beyond the expected period.
7. Which method is generally most useful for establishing gestational age
when menstrual dates are uncertain early in pregnancy?
A. Maternal blood pressure
B. Fundal height alone
C. Early ultrasound assessment
D. Maternal pulse rate
Rationale: Early ultrasound, particularly when performed during the first
trimester, can provide a reliable estimate of gestational age when
menstrual dating is uncertain.
8. Fundal height measurement after the uterus becomes abdominally
palpable is primarily used to:
A. Diagnose fetal sex
B. Measure maternal pelvic dimensions
C. Monitor fetal growth and gestational progression
D. Determine placental blood flow directly
Rationale: Serial fundal-height measurements provide a practical
screening method for assessing uterine growth and identifying possible
discrepancies that may require further evaluation.
, 9. Which maternal finding during pregnancy should generally prompt
evaluation for hypertensive disease?
A. Blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg without symptoms
B. Mild dependent edema at the end of the day
C. Elevated blood pressure accompanied by concerning symptoms such as
severe headache or visual disturbance
D. Increased appetite
Rationale: Hypertension with symptoms such as severe headache, visual
changes, or upper abdominal pain can indicate a hypertensive disorder
requiring prompt assessment.
10. Which symptom is particularly concerning for severe
preeclampsia?
A. Mild morning nausea
B. Persistent severe headache with visual disturbances
C. Occasional urinary frequency
D. Mild breast tenderness
Rationale: Severe headache and visual disturbances can indicate
significant neurologic involvement in hypertensive disease of pregnancy
and require prompt evaluation.
11. Which laboratory finding is particularly relevant when evaluating
suspected preeclampsia?
A. Elevated serum sodium alone
B. Proteinuria or other evidence of maternal organ involvement
C. Decreased respiratory rate
D. Increased serum calcium alone
Rationale: Proteinuria can support the diagnosis of preeclampsia, while
current diagnostic assessment also considers signs of maternal organ
dysfunction even when proteinuria is absent.
Practice Questions And Correct Answers
(Verified Answers) Plus Rationale 2027
Q&A| Instant Download Pdf.
1. Which principle is fundamental to safe direct-entry midwifery care
throughout pregnancy, labor, birth, and the postpartum period?
A. Avoiding all medical consultation
B. Providing appropriate assessment, monitoring, informed choice, and
timely referral when complications arise
C. Limiting care to labor only
D. Using identical interventions for every client
Rationale: Safe midwifery care requires individualized assessment,
informed decision-making, ongoing monitoring, and timely consultation or
referral when findings exceed the midwife's scope or indicate increased
risk.
2. Which physiologic change normally occurs during pregnancy?
A. Decreased maternal blood volume
B. Decreased cardiac output
C. Increased maternal blood volume
D. Persistent severe bradycardia
,Rationale: Maternal plasma and red-cell volume increase during
pregnancy, supporting uteroplacental circulation and preparing the body
for blood loss associated with birth.
3. Which hormone is primarily responsible for maintaining the
endometrial environment during early pregnancy?
A. Oxytocin
B. Prolactin
C. Progesterone
D. Follicle-stimulating hormone
Rationale: Progesterone supports the endometrium, reduces uterine
contractility, and plays a critical role in maintaining pregnancy,
particularly during early gestation.
4. Human chorionic gonadotropin is produced primarily by the:
A. Maternal pituitary gland
B. Corpus luteum only
C. Placental trophoblastic tissue
D. Fetal adrenal cortex
Rationale: hCG is produced by trophoblastic cells after implantation and
supports the corpus luteum during early pregnancy.
5. Which finding is most concerning during an initial prenatal
assessment?
A. Mild nausea during early pregnancy
B. Increased urinary frequency
C. Heavy vaginal bleeding accompanied by significant abdominal pain
D. Mild breast tenderness
Rationale: Heavy bleeding with significant abdominal pain can indicate
miscarriage, ectopic pregnancy, or another urgent condition requiring
prompt evaluation.
, 6. What is the primary purpose of calculating an estimated due date?
A. Determine the exact day labor will occur
B. Determine fetal sex
C. Provide an approximate gestational age and framework for prenatal and
obstetric assessment
D. Establish the newborn's birth weight
Rationale: An estimated due date provides a reference for assessing fetal
growth, timing prenatal care, interpreting testing, and identifying
pregnancies that extend beyond the expected period.
7. Which method is generally most useful for establishing gestational age
when menstrual dates are uncertain early in pregnancy?
A. Maternal blood pressure
B. Fundal height alone
C. Early ultrasound assessment
D. Maternal pulse rate
Rationale: Early ultrasound, particularly when performed during the first
trimester, can provide a reliable estimate of gestational age when
menstrual dating is uncertain.
8. Fundal height measurement after the uterus becomes abdominally
palpable is primarily used to:
A. Diagnose fetal sex
B. Measure maternal pelvic dimensions
C. Monitor fetal growth and gestational progression
D. Determine placental blood flow directly
Rationale: Serial fundal-height measurements provide a practical
screening method for assessing uterine growth and identifying possible
discrepancies that may require further evaluation.
, 9. Which maternal finding during pregnancy should generally prompt
evaluation for hypertensive disease?
A. Blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg without symptoms
B. Mild dependent edema at the end of the day
C. Elevated blood pressure accompanied by concerning symptoms such as
severe headache or visual disturbance
D. Increased appetite
Rationale: Hypertension with symptoms such as severe headache, visual
changes, or upper abdominal pain can indicate a hypertensive disorder
requiring prompt assessment.
10. Which symptom is particularly concerning for severe
preeclampsia?
A. Mild morning nausea
B. Persistent severe headache with visual disturbances
C. Occasional urinary frequency
D. Mild breast tenderness
Rationale: Severe headache and visual disturbances can indicate
significant neurologic involvement in hypertensive disease of pregnancy
and require prompt evaluation.
11. Which laboratory finding is particularly relevant when evaluating
suspected preeclampsia?
A. Elevated serum sodium alone
B. Proteinuria or other evidence of maternal organ involvement
C. Decreased respiratory rate
D. Increased serum calcium alone
Rationale: Proteinuria can support the diagnosis of preeclampsia, while
current diagnostic assessment also considers signs of maternal organ
dysfunction even when proteinuria is absent.
