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EMT FISDAP Readiness Practice Exam (100 Questions)
Section 1: Preparatory, Legal & Ethical Issues (Questions 1–15)
1. The collective set of regulations and ethical considerations governing the EMT is called:
A. Duty to act
B. Scope of practice
C. Advanced directives
D. Good Samaritan laws
Answer: B
2. Which one of the following is NOT a type of consent required for any treatment or
action by an EMT?
A. Child and mentally incompetent adult
B. Implied
C. Applied
D. Expressed
Answer: C
3. When you inform the adult patient of the procedures you are about to perform and its
associated risks, you are asking for his or her:
A. Expressed consent
B. Negligence
C. Implied consent
D. Applied consent
Answer: A
4. You are treating a patient that was found unconscious at the bottom of the stairwell.
Consent that is based on the assumption that an unconscious patient would approve the
EMT's life-saving interventions is called:
A. Expressed consent
B. Implied consent
C. Negligence
D. Applied consent
Answer: B
5. Forcing a competent adult patient to go to the hospital against his or her will may result
in charges against the EMT:
A. Abandonment
B. Assault and battery
C. Implied consent
D. Negligence
Answer: B
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6. Leaving a patient on the hallway stretcher in a busy ED and leaving without giving
report to a healthcare professional is an example of:
A. Liability infraction
B. Battery
C. Abandonment
D. Breach of duty
Answer: C
7. The federal law designed to protect the patient's private medical information is the:
A. NHTSA
B. ANSI
C. HIPAA
D. OSHA
Answer: C
8. An EMT is exposed to potentially infectious blood during patient care. Which document
outlines the employer's responsibilities for post-exposure evaluation?
A. The EMS protocol manual
B. The Bloodborne Pathogens Standard (29 CFR 1910.1030)
C. The HIPAA Privacy Rule
D. The EMT Scope of Practice
Answer: B
9. Which of the following is an example of a qualitative vital sign?
A. Blood pressure of 120/80
B. Heart rate of 88
C. Level of consciousness
D. Respiratory rate of 18
Answer: C
10. The EMT's scope of practice is defined by:
A. The medical director only
B. State laws, regulations, and local medical direction
C. The EMT textbook
D. Hospital protocols only
Answer: B
11. An EMT is off-duty and encounters a motor vehicle collision. They have no equipment.
The EMT should:
A. Drive away to avoid liability
B. Provide care to the level of their training and available resources
C. Wait for the ambulance to arrive before acting
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D. Only call 911 but not approach
Answer: B
12. Which mode of pathogen transmission involves contact with contaminated objects or
surfaces?
A. Droplet transmission
B. Airborne transmission
C. Indirect contact transmission
D. Vector-borne transmission
Answer: C
13. When the EMT makes the physical/emotional needs of the patient a priority, this is
considered a(n) _____ of the EMT:
A. Advanced directive
B. Protocol
C. Ethical responsibility
D. Legal responsibility
Answer: C
14. Your record of a patient's refusal of medical care or transport should include all of the
following EXCEPT:
A. Informing the patient of the risks and consequences of refusal
B. Documenting the steps you took
C. Signing of the form by the medical director
D. Obtaining a release form with the patient's witnessed signature
Answer: C
15. The extent of limits of the EMT's job is called the:
A. Ethical dilemma
B. National curriculum
C. Scope of practice
D. Regional protocol
Answer: C
Section 2: Airway, Respiration & Ventilation (Questions 16–30)
16. You are assessing a 34-year-old unresponsive male who was found down at a
construction site. He has a gag reflex but no cough. Which airway adjunct is most
appropriate for this patient?
A. Nasopharyngeal airway (NPA)
B. Oropharyngeal airway (OPA)
C. Supraglottic airway device
D. No adjunct is needed; place in recovery position
Answer: A
EMT FISDAP Readiness Practice Exam (100 Questions)
Section 1: Preparatory, Legal & Ethical Issues (Questions 1–15)
1. The collective set of regulations and ethical considerations governing the EMT is called:
A. Duty to act
B. Scope of practice
C. Advanced directives
D. Good Samaritan laws
Answer: B
2. Which one of the following is NOT a type of consent required for any treatment or
action by an EMT?
A. Child and mentally incompetent adult
B. Implied
C. Applied
D. Expressed
Answer: C
3. When you inform the adult patient of the procedures you are about to perform and its
associated risks, you are asking for his or her:
A. Expressed consent
B. Negligence
C. Implied consent
D. Applied consent
Answer: A
4. You are treating a patient that was found unconscious at the bottom of the stairwell.
Consent that is based on the assumption that an unconscious patient would approve the
EMT's life-saving interventions is called:
A. Expressed consent
B. Implied consent
C. Negligence
D. Applied consent
Answer: B
5. Forcing a competent adult patient to go to the hospital against his or her will may result
in charges against the EMT:
A. Abandonment
B. Assault and battery
C. Implied consent
D. Negligence
Answer: B
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6. Leaving a patient on the hallway stretcher in a busy ED and leaving without giving
report to a healthcare professional is an example of:
A. Liability infraction
B. Battery
C. Abandonment
D. Breach of duty
Answer: C
7. The federal law designed to protect the patient's private medical information is the:
A. NHTSA
B. ANSI
C. HIPAA
D. OSHA
Answer: C
8. An EMT is exposed to potentially infectious blood during patient care. Which document
outlines the employer's responsibilities for post-exposure evaluation?
A. The EMS protocol manual
B. The Bloodborne Pathogens Standard (29 CFR 1910.1030)
C. The HIPAA Privacy Rule
D. The EMT Scope of Practice
Answer: B
9. Which of the following is an example of a qualitative vital sign?
A. Blood pressure of 120/80
B. Heart rate of 88
C. Level of consciousness
D. Respiratory rate of 18
Answer: C
10. The EMT's scope of practice is defined by:
A. The medical director only
B. State laws, regulations, and local medical direction
C. The EMT textbook
D. Hospital protocols only
Answer: B
11. An EMT is off-duty and encounters a motor vehicle collision. They have no equipment.
The EMT should:
A. Drive away to avoid liability
B. Provide care to the level of their training and available resources
C. Wait for the ambulance to arrive before acting
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D. Only call 911 but not approach
Answer: B
12. Which mode of pathogen transmission involves contact with contaminated objects or
surfaces?
A. Droplet transmission
B. Airborne transmission
C. Indirect contact transmission
D. Vector-borne transmission
Answer: C
13. When the EMT makes the physical/emotional needs of the patient a priority, this is
considered a(n) _____ of the EMT:
A. Advanced directive
B. Protocol
C. Ethical responsibility
D. Legal responsibility
Answer: C
14. Your record of a patient's refusal of medical care or transport should include all of the
following EXCEPT:
A. Informing the patient of the risks and consequences of refusal
B. Documenting the steps you took
C. Signing of the form by the medical director
D. Obtaining a release form with the patient's witnessed signature
Answer: C
15. The extent of limits of the EMT's job is called the:
A. Ethical dilemma
B. National curriculum
C. Scope of practice
D. Regional protocol
Answer: C
Section 2: Airway, Respiration & Ventilation (Questions 16–30)
16. You are assessing a 34-year-old unresponsive male who was found down at a
construction site. He has a gag reflex but no cough. Which airway adjunct is most
appropriate for this patient?
A. Nasopharyngeal airway (NPA)
B. Oropharyngeal airway (OPA)
C. Supraglottic airway device
D. No adjunct is needed; place in recovery position
Answer: A
