1|Page
ATI MATERNAL NEWBORN
PROCTORED EXAM GRADED A
[QUESTION 1-100] AND ANSWERS
UPDATED 2026/2027 | DETAILED
RATIONALES | EXAM PREPARATION
GUIDE
INTRODUCTION
The ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Examination evaluates a nursing student's ability to
provide safe, evidence-based care to childbearing clients, newborns, and families throughout
pregnancy, labor, birth, and the postpartum period. This practice question bank is designed for
nursing students preparing for maternal-newborn assessments and proctored examinations, with
an emphasis on clinical judgment, prioritization, patient safety, and application of nursing
principles.
The examination may assess prenatal care, complications of pregnancy, fetal monitoring, labor
and delivery, postpartum recovery, newborn assessment, neonatal complications, pharmacology,
and patient education. Questions may require students to recognize clinical deterioration,
interpret assessment findings, identify appropriate interventions, and evaluate responses to
treatment. The exact distribution and format can vary by ATI assessment version.
This study guide provides original, challenging multiple-choice practice questions with detailed
rationales. Each question includes four options and one best answer, followed by explanations of
why the correct choice is appropriate and why the alternatives are less appropriate. Use the
questions to identify knowledge gaps, strengthen clinical reasoning, and guide targeted review of
your course materials and current nursing guidelines. Although this resource supports structured
preparation, no practice bank can guarantee a particular score or replace the official ATI
materials.
CONTENT AREA OVERVIEW
Indicative study
Content area Questions Key topics
emphasis
Prenatal care and Pregnancy dating, screening, nutrition,
1–12 High
assessment prenatal teaching
Pregnancy Hypertensive disorders, bleeding,
13–27 High
complications diabetes, preterm labor
,2|Page
Labor and fetal FHR patterns, contractions, labor
28–43 High
monitoring progress, emergency response
Intrapartum Cord prolapse, shoulder dystocia,
44–55 High
complications uterine rupture, dystocia
Hemorrhage, infection, uterine
Postpartum care 56–68 High
involution, mental health
Newborn assessment Transition, thermoregulation, feeding,
69–82 High
and care screening, jaundice
Prematurity, respiratory distress,
High-risk newborns 83–92 High
hypoglycemia, infection
Medications and Obstetric medications,
93–100 High
clinical judgment contraindications, prioritization
The question allocation and emphasis above are a study-planning framework, not an official ATI
blueprint or verified percentage weighting.
QUESTIONS 1–100
Prenatal Care and Assessment
Q1. A nurse is reviewing the prenatal record of a client at 10 weeks of gestation who reports
taking a daily supplement containing 400 mcg of folic acid. Which additional recommendation is
most appropriate?
A) Increase vitamin A intake to prevent neural tube defects
B) Continue adequate folic acid intake and consume a balanced diet
C) Restrict dietary protein until the second trimester
D) Avoid all physical activity until fetal movement is perceived
Rationale: B is correct because adequate folic acid before conception and during early
pregnancy reduces the risk of neural tube defects. A is incorrect because excessive preformed
vitamin A can cause fetal harm. C is incorrect because protein is necessary throughout
pregnancy. D is incorrect because appropriate physical activity is generally encouraged in
uncomplicated pregnancies.
Q2. A client at 28 weeks of gestation reports severe headaches and blurred vision. The blood
pressure is 166/112 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take first?
A) Encourage oral fluids and reassess in 30 minutes
B) Schedule a routine prenatal appointment for the following day
C) Initiate urgent evaluation for severe preeclampsia and notify the obstetric team
D) Explain that headaches are expected during the third trimester
,3|Page
Rationale: C is correct because severe-range hypertension accompanied by neurologic
symptoms may indicate preeclampsia with severe features and risk of stroke or eclampsia. A
delays necessary treatment. B is unsafe because the findings require immediate evaluation. D
incorrectly normalizes potentially life-threatening symptoms.
Q3. A nurse is teaching a client who is 9 weeks pregnant about manifestations of an ectopic
pregnancy. Which statement indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Shoulder-tip pain with abdominal pain can be an emergency."
B) "I should seek care for severe one-sided pelvic pain."
C) "Vaginal bleeding with dizziness requires prompt evaluation."
D) "If I have no vaginal bleeding, an ectopic pregnancy is impossible."
Rationale: D is correct because it is the statement requiring correction; ectopic pregnancy can
occur without vaginal bleeding. A, B, and C describe warning signs that may indicate internal
bleeding or rupture and require urgent assessment.
Q4. A client at 30 weeks of gestation asks why the nurse measures fundal height. Which
response is best?
A) "It determines the exact fetal weight."
B) "It helps assess whether uterine growth is consistent with gestational age."
C) "It confirms the fetal presentation with complete accuracy."
D) "It replaces ultrasound when fetal growth restriction is suspected."
Rationale: B is correct because fundal height provides a screening estimate of uterine growth. A
is incorrect because fundal height cannot determine exact fetal weight. C is incorrect because it
does not always establish presentation accurately. D is incorrect because suspected growth
abnormalities may require ultrasound and additional assessment.
Q5. A client at 11 weeks of gestation reports persistent vomiting, a 5% loss of prepregnancy
weight, and reduced urine output. Which nursing action is the priority?
A) Recommend eating three large meals daily
B) Advise avoiding fluids until nausea resolves
C) Assess hydration and electrolyte status and arrange prompt medical evaluation
D) Reassure the client that weight loss is always expected in pregnancy
Rationale: C is correct because the findings suggest severe pregnancy-related vomiting with
possible dehydration and electrolyte abnormalities. A may worsen nausea. B increases
dehydration risk. D dismisses clinically significant weight loss and oliguria.
Q6. A pregnant client at 24 weeks asks which symptom should be reported immediately. Which
response is best?
, 4|Page
A) Mild nausea after eating
B) Occasional urinary frequency without pain
C) Mild breast tenderness
D) A sudden gush of fluid from the vagina
Rationale: D is correct because a sudden fluid gush may indicate rupture of membranes and
requires prompt assessment for infection, cord complications, and preterm birth. A, B, and C can
occur in uncomplicated pregnancy, although urinary symptoms accompanied by pain or fever
require evaluation.
Q7. A nurse reviews prenatal laboratory results for a client at 10 weeks of gestation. The client is
Rh-negative and has no documented antibodies. Which statement about care is accurate?
A) Rh immune globulin is contraindicated in all first pregnancies
B) The client requires no further blood testing during pregnancy
C) Rh immune globulin is generally indicated at the recommended gestational interval and
after certain sensitizing events
D) Rh immune globulin treats established maternal Rh sensitization
Rationale: C is correct because unsensitized Rh-negative clients generally receive prophylaxis
around 28 weeks and after qualifying sensitizing events, with postpartum administration when
indicated. A is incorrect because prophylaxis is not limited by first pregnancy status. B ignores
ongoing screening. D is incorrect because Rh immune globulin prevents sensitization; it does not
reverse established alloimmunization.
Q8. A nurse is teaching a pregnant client about iron supplementation. Which instruction is
appropriate?
A) Take iron with an antacid to maximize absorption
B) Stop iron if stools become dark
C) Take iron with a vitamin C-containing beverage if tolerated
D) Take iron only with large amounts of milk
Rationale: C is correct because vitamin C can enhance iron absorption. A and D are incorrect
because antacids and calcium-rich products can reduce absorption when taken together. B is
incorrect because dark stools are a common effect of oral iron, although tarry stools
accompanied by weakness or other concerning symptoms require evaluation.
Q9. A client at 32 weeks of gestation reports that fetal movements have decreased substantially
from the usual pattern. Which action should the nurse recommend?
A) Wait until the next routine appointment
B) Drink coffee and wait 24 hours
C) Contact the maternity care team promptly for fetal assessment
D) Assume fetal movement decreases normally as term approaches
ATI MATERNAL NEWBORN
PROCTORED EXAM GRADED A
[QUESTION 1-100] AND ANSWERS
UPDATED 2026/2027 | DETAILED
RATIONALES | EXAM PREPARATION
GUIDE
INTRODUCTION
The ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Examination evaluates a nursing student's ability to
provide safe, evidence-based care to childbearing clients, newborns, and families throughout
pregnancy, labor, birth, and the postpartum period. This practice question bank is designed for
nursing students preparing for maternal-newborn assessments and proctored examinations, with
an emphasis on clinical judgment, prioritization, patient safety, and application of nursing
principles.
The examination may assess prenatal care, complications of pregnancy, fetal monitoring, labor
and delivery, postpartum recovery, newborn assessment, neonatal complications, pharmacology,
and patient education. Questions may require students to recognize clinical deterioration,
interpret assessment findings, identify appropriate interventions, and evaluate responses to
treatment. The exact distribution and format can vary by ATI assessment version.
This study guide provides original, challenging multiple-choice practice questions with detailed
rationales. Each question includes four options and one best answer, followed by explanations of
why the correct choice is appropriate and why the alternatives are less appropriate. Use the
questions to identify knowledge gaps, strengthen clinical reasoning, and guide targeted review of
your course materials and current nursing guidelines. Although this resource supports structured
preparation, no practice bank can guarantee a particular score or replace the official ATI
materials.
CONTENT AREA OVERVIEW
Indicative study
Content area Questions Key topics
emphasis
Prenatal care and Pregnancy dating, screening, nutrition,
1–12 High
assessment prenatal teaching
Pregnancy Hypertensive disorders, bleeding,
13–27 High
complications diabetes, preterm labor
,2|Page
Labor and fetal FHR patterns, contractions, labor
28–43 High
monitoring progress, emergency response
Intrapartum Cord prolapse, shoulder dystocia,
44–55 High
complications uterine rupture, dystocia
Hemorrhage, infection, uterine
Postpartum care 56–68 High
involution, mental health
Newborn assessment Transition, thermoregulation, feeding,
69–82 High
and care screening, jaundice
Prematurity, respiratory distress,
High-risk newborns 83–92 High
hypoglycemia, infection
Medications and Obstetric medications,
93–100 High
clinical judgment contraindications, prioritization
The question allocation and emphasis above are a study-planning framework, not an official ATI
blueprint or verified percentage weighting.
QUESTIONS 1–100
Prenatal Care and Assessment
Q1. A nurse is reviewing the prenatal record of a client at 10 weeks of gestation who reports
taking a daily supplement containing 400 mcg of folic acid. Which additional recommendation is
most appropriate?
A) Increase vitamin A intake to prevent neural tube defects
B) Continue adequate folic acid intake and consume a balanced diet
C) Restrict dietary protein until the second trimester
D) Avoid all physical activity until fetal movement is perceived
Rationale: B is correct because adequate folic acid before conception and during early
pregnancy reduces the risk of neural tube defects. A is incorrect because excessive preformed
vitamin A can cause fetal harm. C is incorrect because protein is necessary throughout
pregnancy. D is incorrect because appropriate physical activity is generally encouraged in
uncomplicated pregnancies.
Q2. A client at 28 weeks of gestation reports severe headaches and blurred vision. The blood
pressure is 166/112 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take first?
A) Encourage oral fluids and reassess in 30 minutes
B) Schedule a routine prenatal appointment for the following day
C) Initiate urgent evaluation for severe preeclampsia and notify the obstetric team
D) Explain that headaches are expected during the third trimester
,3|Page
Rationale: C is correct because severe-range hypertension accompanied by neurologic
symptoms may indicate preeclampsia with severe features and risk of stroke or eclampsia. A
delays necessary treatment. B is unsafe because the findings require immediate evaluation. D
incorrectly normalizes potentially life-threatening symptoms.
Q3. A nurse is teaching a client who is 9 weeks pregnant about manifestations of an ectopic
pregnancy. Which statement indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Shoulder-tip pain with abdominal pain can be an emergency."
B) "I should seek care for severe one-sided pelvic pain."
C) "Vaginal bleeding with dizziness requires prompt evaluation."
D) "If I have no vaginal bleeding, an ectopic pregnancy is impossible."
Rationale: D is correct because it is the statement requiring correction; ectopic pregnancy can
occur without vaginal bleeding. A, B, and C describe warning signs that may indicate internal
bleeding or rupture and require urgent assessment.
Q4. A client at 30 weeks of gestation asks why the nurse measures fundal height. Which
response is best?
A) "It determines the exact fetal weight."
B) "It helps assess whether uterine growth is consistent with gestational age."
C) "It confirms the fetal presentation with complete accuracy."
D) "It replaces ultrasound when fetal growth restriction is suspected."
Rationale: B is correct because fundal height provides a screening estimate of uterine growth. A
is incorrect because fundal height cannot determine exact fetal weight. C is incorrect because it
does not always establish presentation accurately. D is incorrect because suspected growth
abnormalities may require ultrasound and additional assessment.
Q5. A client at 11 weeks of gestation reports persistent vomiting, a 5% loss of prepregnancy
weight, and reduced urine output. Which nursing action is the priority?
A) Recommend eating three large meals daily
B) Advise avoiding fluids until nausea resolves
C) Assess hydration and electrolyte status and arrange prompt medical evaluation
D) Reassure the client that weight loss is always expected in pregnancy
Rationale: C is correct because the findings suggest severe pregnancy-related vomiting with
possible dehydration and electrolyte abnormalities. A may worsen nausea. B increases
dehydration risk. D dismisses clinically significant weight loss and oliguria.
Q6. A pregnant client at 24 weeks asks which symptom should be reported immediately. Which
response is best?
, 4|Page
A) Mild nausea after eating
B) Occasional urinary frequency without pain
C) Mild breast tenderness
D) A sudden gush of fluid from the vagina
Rationale: D is correct because a sudden fluid gush may indicate rupture of membranes and
requires prompt assessment for infection, cord complications, and preterm birth. A, B, and C can
occur in uncomplicated pregnancy, although urinary symptoms accompanied by pain or fever
require evaluation.
Q7. A nurse reviews prenatal laboratory results for a client at 10 weeks of gestation. The client is
Rh-negative and has no documented antibodies. Which statement about care is accurate?
A) Rh immune globulin is contraindicated in all first pregnancies
B) The client requires no further blood testing during pregnancy
C) Rh immune globulin is generally indicated at the recommended gestational interval and
after certain sensitizing events
D) Rh immune globulin treats established maternal Rh sensitization
Rationale: C is correct because unsensitized Rh-negative clients generally receive prophylaxis
around 28 weeks and after qualifying sensitizing events, with postpartum administration when
indicated. A is incorrect because prophylaxis is not limited by first pregnancy status. B ignores
ongoing screening. D is incorrect because Rh immune globulin prevents sensitization; it does not
reverse established alloimmunization.
Q8. A nurse is teaching a pregnant client about iron supplementation. Which instruction is
appropriate?
A) Take iron with an antacid to maximize absorption
B) Stop iron if stools become dark
C) Take iron with a vitamin C-containing beverage if tolerated
D) Take iron only with large amounts of milk
Rationale: C is correct because vitamin C can enhance iron absorption. A and D are incorrect
because antacids and calcium-rich products can reduce absorption when taken together. B is
incorrect because dark stools are a common effect of oral iron, although tarry stools
accompanied by weakness or other concerning symptoms require evaluation.
Q9. A client at 32 weeks of gestation reports that fetal movements have decreased substantially
from the usual pattern. Which action should the nurse recommend?
A) Wait until the next routine appointment
B) Drink coffee and wait 24 hours
C) Contact the maternity care team promptly for fetal assessment
D) Assume fetal movement decreases normally as term approaches
