RNSG 1128 Exam 1 – Introduction to Health Care Concepts,
Complete Questions and Correct Answers & Rationales | New
Update 2026-2027
1. Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of the nursing
assessment?
A) To systematically collect data about a patient to determine current and ongoing
health status, predict risks, and identify health-promoting activities
B) To document the patient's medical diagnosis and treatment plan
C) To establish the financial cost of patient care
D) To determine the patient's insurance coverage for hospitalization
Correct Answer: To systematically collect data about a patient to determine
current and ongoing health status, predict risks, and identify health-promoting
activities
Rationale: Assessment is a systematic method of collecting data about a patient
for the purpose of determining the patient's current and ongoing health status,
predicting risks to health, and identifying health-promoting activities. It is not
used to determine medical diagnoses, establish costs, or determine insurance
coverage.
2. What is the primary function of the clinical database in nursing assessment?
A) To contain only the patient's vital signs and laboratory results
B) To provide the full extent of information about a patient, including nursing
health history, physical assessment, and diagnostic test results
C) To document only the primary care provider's notes
D) To serve as a billing record for the healthcare facility
Correct Answer: To provide the full extent of information about a patient,
including nursing health history, physical assessment, and diagnostic test results
Rationale: The clinical database is the full extent of information about a patient,
including nursing health history, physical assessment, the primary care provider's
,history and physical examination, results of laboratory and diagnostic tests, and
material contributed by other health personnel.
3. According to the exam blueprint, which type of data is apparent only to the
patient and can be described or verified by only that patient?
A) Objective data
B) Subjective data
C) Clinical data
D) Diagnostic data
Correct Answer: Subjective data
Rationale: Subjective data is information that is apparent only to the patient
affected and can be described or verified by only that patient, also known as
symptoms. Objective data is information that is seen, heard, felt, or smelled by an
observer, also known as signs.
4. Which type of interview is highly structured and used in emergency
situations where the nurse controls the subject matter?
A) Nondirective interview
B) Directive interview
C) Rapport-building interview
D) Open-ended interview
Correct Answer: Directive interview
Rationale: A directive interview is highly structured; the nurse controls the subject
matter and asks questions to obtain specific information. It is used in emergency
situations where time is limited. A nondirective interview is a rapport-building
interview where the client controls the purpose, subject matter, and pacing.
5. Which technique of physical examination involves visual examination or
assessment using sight?
A) Palpation
B) Percussion
C) Inspection
D) Auscultation
,Correct Answer: Inspection
Rationale: Inspection is visual examination or assessment using sight. Palpation is
examination using touch, percussion is the striking of the body surface, and
auscultation is listening to sounds produced by the body.
6. What is the primary purpose of the opening phase of a patient interview?
A) To establish rapport and orient the interviewee, setting the tone for the
remainder of the interview
B) To obtain the patient's complete medical history
C) To perform a head-to-toe physical examination
D) To document the patient's discharge plan
Correct Answer: To establish rapport and orient the interviewee, setting the tone
for the remainder of the interview
Rationale: The opening of the interview has the purpose of establishing rapport
and orienting the interviewee. It sets the tone for the remainder of the interview.
The body of the interview is where the patient communicates what he or she
feels, thinks, knows, and perceives.
7. According to the exam blueprint, what is the normal range for total white
blood cell count (WBC)?
A) 1,000 to 3,000/mm³
B) 5,000 to 10,000/mm³
C) 15,000 to 20,000/mm³
D) 25,000 to 30,000/mm³
Correct Answer: 5,000 to 10,000/mm³
Rationale: The normal range for total WBC is 5,000 to 10,000/mm³. The
differential count includes basophils (0.3-0.5%), eosinophils (1-3%), monocytes (3-
7%), neutrophils (60-65%), and lymphocytes. These values are essential for
assessing immune function.
8. Which immune cell is described as the first to arrive on the scene and
functions as a phagocytic cell, engulfing, ingesting, and destroying foreign
bodies?
, A) T lymphocytes
B) B lymphocytes
C) Monocytes/macrophages
D) Natural killer cells
Correct Answer: Monocytes/macrophages
Rationale: Monocytes/macrophages are the first to arrive on the scene and
function as phagocytic cells, engulfing, ingesting, and destroying foreign bodies.
Dendritic cells are antigen-presenting cells, and natural killer cells are the first line
of defense against viral infections.
9. Which type of T cell attacks the antigen directly by altering the cell
membrane, causing cell lysis, and releasing cytolytic enzymes and
cytokines?
A) Helper T cells
B) Cytotoxic T cells
C) Suppressor T cells
D) Memory cells
Correct Answer: Cytotoxic T cells
Rationale: Cytotoxic T cells attack the antigen directly by altering the cell
membrane, causing cell lysis, and releasing cytolytic enzymes and cytokines.
Helper T cells activate other T cells and B cells, suppressor T cells decrease B cell
production, and memory cells recognize antigens from previous exposure.
10.Which immunoglobulin is described as comprising 75% of antibodies and
crosses the placenta?
A) IgA
B) IgM
C) IgG
D) IgE
Correct Answer: IgG
Rationale: IgG comprises 75% of antibodies and crosses the placenta. IgA (15%)
passes in breast milk for protection, IgM (10%) is first produced in response to
Complete Questions and Correct Answers & Rationales | New
Update 2026-2027
1. Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of the nursing
assessment?
A) To systematically collect data about a patient to determine current and ongoing
health status, predict risks, and identify health-promoting activities
B) To document the patient's medical diagnosis and treatment plan
C) To establish the financial cost of patient care
D) To determine the patient's insurance coverage for hospitalization
Correct Answer: To systematically collect data about a patient to determine
current and ongoing health status, predict risks, and identify health-promoting
activities
Rationale: Assessment is a systematic method of collecting data about a patient
for the purpose of determining the patient's current and ongoing health status,
predicting risks to health, and identifying health-promoting activities. It is not
used to determine medical diagnoses, establish costs, or determine insurance
coverage.
2. What is the primary function of the clinical database in nursing assessment?
A) To contain only the patient's vital signs and laboratory results
B) To provide the full extent of information about a patient, including nursing
health history, physical assessment, and diagnostic test results
C) To document only the primary care provider's notes
D) To serve as a billing record for the healthcare facility
Correct Answer: To provide the full extent of information about a patient,
including nursing health history, physical assessment, and diagnostic test results
Rationale: The clinical database is the full extent of information about a patient,
including nursing health history, physical assessment, the primary care provider's
,history and physical examination, results of laboratory and diagnostic tests, and
material contributed by other health personnel.
3. According to the exam blueprint, which type of data is apparent only to the
patient and can be described or verified by only that patient?
A) Objective data
B) Subjective data
C) Clinical data
D) Diagnostic data
Correct Answer: Subjective data
Rationale: Subjective data is information that is apparent only to the patient
affected and can be described or verified by only that patient, also known as
symptoms. Objective data is information that is seen, heard, felt, or smelled by an
observer, also known as signs.
4. Which type of interview is highly structured and used in emergency
situations where the nurse controls the subject matter?
A) Nondirective interview
B) Directive interview
C) Rapport-building interview
D) Open-ended interview
Correct Answer: Directive interview
Rationale: A directive interview is highly structured; the nurse controls the subject
matter and asks questions to obtain specific information. It is used in emergency
situations where time is limited. A nondirective interview is a rapport-building
interview where the client controls the purpose, subject matter, and pacing.
5. Which technique of physical examination involves visual examination or
assessment using sight?
A) Palpation
B) Percussion
C) Inspection
D) Auscultation
,Correct Answer: Inspection
Rationale: Inspection is visual examination or assessment using sight. Palpation is
examination using touch, percussion is the striking of the body surface, and
auscultation is listening to sounds produced by the body.
6. What is the primary purpose of the opening phase of a patient interview?
A) To establish rapport and orient the interviewee, setting the tone for the
remainder of the interview
B) To obtain the patient's complete medical history
C) To perform a head-to-toe physical examination
D) To document the patient's discharge plan
Correct Answer: To establish rapport and orient the interviewee, setting the tone
for the remainder of the interview
Rationale: The opening of the interview has the purpose of establishing rapport
and orienting the interviewee. It sets the tone for the remainder of the interview.
The body of the interview is where the patient communicates what he or she
feels, thinks, knows, and perceives.
7. According to the exam blueprint, what is the normal range for total white
blood cell count (WBC)?
A) 1,000 to 3,000/mm³
B) 5,000 to 10,000/mm³
C) 15,000 to 20,000/mm³
D) 25,000 to 30,000/mm³
Correct Answer: 5,000 to 10,000/mm³
Rationale: The normal range for total WBC is 5,000 to 10,000/mm³. The
differential count includes basophils (0.3-0.5%), eosinophils (1-3%), monocytes (3-
7%), neutrophils (60-65%), and lymphocytes. These values are essential for
assessing immune function.
8. Which immune cell is described as the first to arrive on the scene and
functions as a phagocytic cell, engulfing, ingesting, and destroying foreign
bodies?
, A) T lymphocytes
B) B lymphocytes
C) Monocytes/macrophages
D) Natural killer cells
Correct Answer: Monocytes/macrophages
Rationale: Monocytes/macrophages are the first to arrive on the scene and
function as phagocytic cells, engulfing, ingesting, and destroying foreign bodies.
Dendritic cells are antigen-presenting cells, and natural killer cells are the first line
of defense against viral infections.
9. Which type of T cell attacks the antigen directly by altering the cell
membrane, causing cell lysis, and releasing cytolytic enzymes and
cytokines?
A) Helper T cells
B) Cytotoxic T cells
C) Suppressor T cells
D) Memory cells
Correct Answer: Cytotoxic T cells
Rationale: Cytotoxic T cells attack the antigen directly by altering the cell
membrane, causing cell lysis, and releasing cytolytic enzymes and cytokines.
Helper T cells activate other T cells and B cells, suppressor T cells decrease B cell
production, and memory cells recognize antigens from previous exposure.
10.Which immunoglobulin is described as comprising 75% of antibodies and
crosses the placenta?
A) IgA
B) IgM
C) IgG
D) IgE
Correct Answer: IgG
Rationale: IgG comprises 75% of antibodies and crosses the placenta. IgA (15%)
passes in breast milk for protection, IgM (10%) is first produced in response to
