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Exam (elaborations)

Nsg6020 Orthopedics Musculoskeletal Nursing Study Guide & Exam

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Nsg6020 Orthopedics Musculoskeletal Nursing Study Guide & Exam

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NSG6020 ORTHOPEDICS MUSCULOSKELETAL NURSING STUDY
GUIDE & EXAM FULL PACKAGE QUESTIONS ANSWERS AND
RATIONALES 2026-27 LATEST UPDATED VERSION INSTANT
DOWNLOAD PDF..!!



INTRODUCTION

The NSG6020 Orthopedics | Musculoskeletal Nursing Study Guide & Exam is the specialized assessment within
South University's Advanced Health and Physical Assessment course that evaluates graduate nursing students'
competency in musculoskeletal evaluation and diagnostic reasoning. This exam is designed for MSN, FNP, DNP,
and APRN students who must demonstrate mastery of joint structure and function, range-of-motion
assessment, special orthopedic tests, and differential diagnosis of common musculoskeletal disorders. The
exam covers synovial, cartilaginous, and fibrous joint anatomy; assessment techniques including inspection,
palpation, and ROM evaluation; special maneuvers such as the McMurray, Lachman, Drawer, Neer, and
Hawkins tests; recognition of osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis, and inflammatory arthropathies; and
evidence-based documentation using the SOAP note format . The format includes multiple-choice questions
requiring application-level clinical reasoning, interpretation of physical examination findings, and selection of
appropriate diagnostic tests. This comprehensive question bank delivers 200 advanced, scenario-based
questions modeled precisely on the NSG6020 curriculum and musculoskeletal assessment objectives, with
detailed rationales explaining why each correct answer is right and every distractor fails. Each question is
designed to replicate the application-level thinking required to pass on your first attempt.

CORE DOMAINS TESTED

• Joint Structure and Function: Synovial, cartilaginous, and fibrous joint anatomy; diarthrodial joints;
articular cartilage and synovial fluid; joint stability mechanisms

• Musculoskeletal Assessment Techniques: Inspection for symmetry, alignment, and deformity;
palpation for nodules, crepitus, swelling, and warmth; active and passive range of motion; muscle
strength grading

• Special Orthopedic Tests: McMurray, Lachman, Drawer, Neer, Hawkins, Phalen, Tinel, Finkelstein, and
other provocative maneuvers

• Hip and Knee Assessment: Hip ROM including flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, and rotation;
knee anatomy including menisci and ligaments; patellofemoral joint assessment

• Shoulder and Upper Extremity Assessment: Rotator cuff integrity testing; carpal tunnel syndrome
evaluation; hand and wrist deformities

• Differential Diagnosis of Joint Disorders: Osteoarthritis vs. rheumatoid arthritis; inflammatory
arthropathies; traumatic effusion vs. degenerative changes; gout and crystal arthropathies

• Gait and Functional Assessment: Gait patterns including antalgic, ataxic, and festinating; functional
limitations; fall risk assessment

• Documentation and Clinical Reasoning: SOAP note format; linking assessment findings to differential
diagnoses; evidence-based diagnostic planning

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QUESTIONS 1-200
Q1: A 68-year-old male presents with chronic bilateral knee pain that
worsens with activity and improves with rest. He reports morning
stiffness lasting approximately 15 minutes. Physical examination
reveals hard, bony enlargements at the distal interphalangeal joints.
Which diagnosis is most consistent with these findings?
A) Rheumatoid arthritis
B) Osteoarthritis
C) Psoriatic arthritis
D) Gouty arthritis
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Osteoarthritis is characterized by
mechanical pain that worsens with activity, brief morning stiffness
lasting less than 30 minutes, and bony enlargements at the DIP joints
(Heberden nodes). Option A is incorrect because rheumatoid arthritis
presents with prolonged morning stiffness exceeding one hour and
symmetric small joint involvement. Option C is incorrect because
psoriatic arthritis is associated with skin plaques and nail changes.
Option D is incorrect because gout typically presents with acute
monoarticular attacks of the first MTP joint.
Q2: During assessment of a patient with suspected carpal tunnel
syndrome, the nurse practitioner asks the patient to hold both wrists
in complete palmar flexion for 60 seconds. The patient reports
reproduction of tingling in the thumb, index, and middle fingers.
Which test was performed?
A) Tinel's sign
B) Phalen's test
C) Finkelstein's test
D) Spurling's test
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Phalen's test involves maintaining

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the wrists in palmar flexion for 60 seconds, which increases pressure
in the carpal tunnel and reproduces median nerve symptoms. Option
A is incorrect because Tinel's sign involves tapping over the nerve.
Option C is incorrect because Finkelstein's test assesses de Quervain's
tenosynovitis. Option D is incorrect because Spurling's test evaluates
cervical nerve root compression.
Q3: A 45-year-old construction worker presents with numbness and
tingling in the thumb, index, and middle fingers that worsens at
night. Which nerve is most likely compromised?
A) Ulnar nerve
B) Median nerve
C) Radial nerve
D) Axillary nerve
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The median nerve provides
sensory innervation to the palmar surface of the thumb, index,
middle, and radial half of the ring finger. Compression at the carpal
tunnel produces these symptoms. Option A is incorrect because ulnar
nerve compression affects the ring and little fingers. Option C is
incorrect because radial nerve compression affects the dorsal hand.
Option D is incorrect because axillary nerve injury affects shoulder
abduction.
Q4: A 72-year-old patient is being assessed for gait abnormalities.
The nurse practitioner observes a shuffling, wide-based gait with
short steps, reduced arm swing, and difficulty initiating movement.
Which neurological structure is most likely implicated?
A) Cerebellum
B) Basal ganglia
C) Corticospinal tract
D) Dorsal columns

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Rationale: The correct answer is B. The festinating gait pattern with
shuffling, short steps, and difficulty initiating movement is
characteristic of basal ganglia dysfunction seen in Parkinson's
disease. Option A is incorrect because cerebellar dysfunction
produces a wide-based ataxic gait. Option C is incorrect because
corticospinal tract lesions produce spastic hemiparesis. Option D is
incorrect because dorsal column dysfunction causes sensory ataxia.
Q5: To assess the integrity of the anterior cruciate ligament, the
nurse practitioner flexes the patient's knee to approximately 30
degrees and pulls the tibia anteriorly. Which test is being performed?
A) McMurray test
B) Lachman test
C) Drawer test
D) Valgus stress test
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The Lachman test is performed
with the knee flexed to 30 degrees and assesses ACL integrity by
pulling the tibia anteriorly. Option A is incorrect because the
McMurray test assesses meniscal tears. Option C is incorrect because
the Drawer test is performed at 90 degrees of flexion. Option D is
incorrect because the valgus stress test assesses the MCL.
Q6: A 55-year-old female presents with unilateral knee swelling,
warmth, and restricted range of motion following a fall two days ago.
Crepitus is noted on passive flexion and extension. Which finding
best distinguishes this presentation from osteoarthritis?
A) Bilateral joint involvement
B) Unilateral effusion with warmth and acute trauma history
C) Morning stiffness lasting less than 30 minutes
D) Hard bony enlargement of the DIP joints
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The combination of unilateral

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