N170 FINAL EXAM PRACTICE
2026–2027 | Questions, Answers & Detailed Rationales
50 original comprehensive nursing questions • A–D options • Detailed rationales • Incorrect-option explanations
Instructions
• Select the single best answer for each question before reviewing the rationale.
• Use clinical priorities: recognize immediate threats, assess rapidly, initiate appropriate actions, escalate
deterioration, and reassess.
• Review every incorrect-option explanation to identify unsafe actions and common exam traps.
• This is an original educational practice resource, not an official, leaked, or verified N170 examination.
Final Exam Practice Questions
Question 1. A nurse is caring for four clients. Which client should be assessed first?
A. A client asking for help choosing a meal
B. A client with new stridor after a procedure
C. A client reporting chronic back pain rated 5/10
D. A client waiting for routine discharge papers
Correct Answer: B
Detailed Rationale: Stridor can indicate upper-airway obstruction and is an immediate threat to breathing.
Rapid assessment and emergency assistance take priority.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
A. Meal selection is routine and can wait.
C. Chronic pain needs assessment, but new stridor poses a more immediate threat.
D. Discharge paperwork is not more urgent than a possible airway emergency.
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Question 2. A client with heart failure suddenly becomes severely dyspneic and produces pink,
frothy sputum. What is the nurse's priority?
A. Place the client flat and encourage sleep
B. Activate urgent assistance, assess breathing and oxygenation, and position upright if tolerated
C. Offer a large glass of water
D. Delay intervention until the next weight is obtained
Correct Answer: B
Detailed Rationale: Severe dyspnea and pink, frothy sputum may indicate acute pulmonary edema. This
requires immediate escalation, respiratory assessment, and supportive positioning while following
emergency orders and protocol.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
A. Lying flat can worsen respiratory distress.
C. Oral fluids do not treat pulmonary edema and may be unsafe.
D. Waiting for a weight delays emergency care.
Original educational practice resource • Not an official or verified exam
, N170 | FINAL PRACTICE EXAM | 2026–2027
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Question 3. A postoperative client has unilateral calf swelling, warmth, and pain. Which action is
most appropriate?
A. Massage the calf firmly
B. Encourage vigorous walking before assessment
C. Promptly assess and notify the appropriate clinician; avoid massaging the calf
D. Apply a heating pad and reassess tomorrow
Correct Answer: C
Detailed Rationale: Unilateral calf swelling and pain may indicate deep-vein thrombosis. Prompt assessment
is needed; avoid massage and follow the clinician's evaluation plan.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
A. Massage may be harmful when thrombosis is suspected.
B. Vigorous ambulation before assessment is not appropriate.
D. Heat and delayed reassessment do not address possible thrombosis.
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Question 4. A nurse finds a client unresponsive and not breathing normally. What should the nurse
do?
A. Wait for a full set of vital signs
B. Activate the emergency response, obtain an AED, and begin CPR according to current training and protocol
C. Give oral fluids
D. Move the client to a chair
Correct Answer: B
Detailed Rationale: Unresponsiveness with absent or abnormal breathing suggests cardiac arrest. Immediate
emergency activation, CPR, and AED use are critical.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
A. A full set of vital signs must not delay resuscitation.
C. Oral fluids create aspiration risk and do not treat arrest.
D. Moving the client to a chair delays life-saving care and may cause injury.
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Question 5. A client with diabetes is confused and diaphoretic. The bedside glucose is 48 mg/dL; the
client is awake and can swallow safely. What should the nurse do first?
A. Give a rapid-acting source of carbohydrate according to protocol and recheck glucose as directed
B. Administer scheduled insulin
C. Encourage exercise
D. Wait for the next meal
Correct Answer: A
Detailed Rationale: Glucose of 48 mg/dL with symptoms is hypoglycemia. If the client can swallow safely, give
fast-acting carbohydrate per protocol and reassess within the recommended interval.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
B. Insulin can worsen hypoglycemia.
C. Exercise can further lower glucose.
D. Waiting risks worsening neuroglycopenia.
Original educational practice resource • Not an official or verified exam
, N170 | FINAL PRACTICE EXAM | 2026–2027
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Question 6. A client suddenly develops facial droop and difficulty speaking. Which information is
especially time-sensitive to obtain?
A. The client's preferred meal
B. The last time the client was known to be at their neurologic baseline
C. The date of the last routine dental visit
D. The client's usual bedtime
Correct Answer: B
Detailed Rationale: Last-known-well time helps determine eligibility for time-sensitive stroke treatments.
Activate the stroke response immediately and do not delay care to collect nonessential history.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
A. Meal preference does not guide acute stroke treatment.
C. Dental history is not the key time-sensitive information.
D. Usual bedtime is not a substitute for last-known-well time.
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Question 7. A client receiving an opioid is difficult to arouse and has a respiratory rate of 7/min.
What is the priority response?
A. Document the finding and return in one hour
B. Support airway and breathing, activate urgent assistance, and follow the opioid-emergency protocol
C. Offer coffee
D. Administer another opioid dose for pain
Correct Answer: B
Detailed Rationale: Marked respiratory depression and reduced arousability may indicate opioid toxicity.
Immediate respiratory support and emergency escalation are required; follow protocol for reversal agents and
monitoring.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
A. Delayed reassessment risks respiratory arrest.
C. Coffee is not an effective treatment for opioid-induced respiratory depression.
D. Another opioid dose could worsen the respiratory depression.
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Question 8. A nurse suspects sepsis in a client with fever, tachycardia, tachypnea, hypotension, and
new confusion. What is the best action?
A. Escalate immediately and initiate the facility's sepsis or deterioration pathway
B. Wait until all laboratory results are available
C. Give a sedative so the client can rest
D. Focus only on reducing the fever
Correct Answer: A
Detailed Rationale: The combination of infection indicators, hypotension, and altered mental status suggests
possible severe infection with organ dysfunction. Prompt escalation and time-sensitive assessment and
treatment are needed.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
B. Treatment and escalation should not wait for all laboratory results.
Original educational practice resource • Not an official or verified exam