NUR 210 Exam 3 | Principles of Pharmacology (2026) Q&A |
Galen College
1. A nurse is providing teaching to a patient prescribed isoniazid (INH) for tuberculosis. Which
instruction is most important to prevent a common adverse effect?
A) "Take vitamin C to increase the drug's effectiveness."
B) "Avoid foods high in tyramine to prevent a hypertensive crisis."
C) "Take vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) to prevent peripheral neuropathy."
D) "Monitor your urine for a red-orange discoloration."
Correct Answer: "Take vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) to prevent peripheral neuropathy."
Rationale: Isoniazid can cause peripheral neuropathy due to the depletion of vitamin B6
(pyridoxine). Supplementation with vitamin B6 is recommended to prevent this common side
effect. Red-orange urine is associated with rifampin, not INH.
2. The nurse is caring for a patient taking rifampin for tuberculosis. The patient's urine is a red-
orange color. What is the nurse's best action?
A) Collect a urine culture and sensitivity.
B) Document the finding as a harmless and expected side effect.
C) Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
D) Increase the patient's fluid intake to dilute the urine.
Correct Answer: Document the finding as a harmless and expected side effect.
Rationale: Rifampin is known to cause a harmless red-orange discoloration of urine, sweat, and
tears. The nurse should document this expected finding and provide patient education to
prevent alarm.
,3. A patient is prescribed a first-generation antihistamine. What is the most critical safety
instruction for the nurse to provide?
A) "Take this medication on an empty stomach."
B) "Avoid driving or operating heavy machinery."
C) "Increase your intake of high-fiber foods."
D) "Report any changes in your urine color."
Correct Answer: "Avoid driving or operating heavy machinery."
Rationale: First-generation antihistamines, such as diphenhydramine, are highly sedating.
Patients should be warned about drowsiness and advised to avoid activities that require mental
alertness.
4. A patient is switching from diphenhydramine to loratadine for allergy relief. What benefit of
loratadine should the nurse emphasize?
A) It has a faster onset of action.
B) It has fewer sedative effects.
C) It is more effective for severe allergic reactions.
D) It does not interact with other medications.
Correct Answer: It has fewer sedative effects.
Rationale: Loratadine is a second-generation antihistamine that is less lipophilic and does not
cross the blood-brain barrier as readily, resulting in fewer sedative effects compared to first-
generation antihistamines like diphenhydramine.
5. A patient is prescribed an antitussive medication. Which side effect should the nurse include
in the patient teaching?
,A) Diarrhea and abdominal cramping.
B) Headache and hypertension.
C) Drowsiness and dizziness.
D) Tachycardia and palpitations.
Correct Answer: Drowsiness and dizziness.
Rationale: Antitussives, particularly those with opioid properties like codeine, commonly cause
central nervous system depression leading to drowsiness and dizziness.
6. A patient with asthma is prescribed a bronchodilator. Which medication is a short-acting
beta-2 agonist used for quick relief?
A) Albuterol
B) Salmeterol
C) Fluticasone
D) Montelukast
Correct Answer: Albuterol
Rationale: Albuterol is a short-acting beta-2 agonist (SABA) used as a rescue medication for
acute bronchospasm. Salmeterol is a long-acting beta-agonist (LABA), fluticasone is a
corticosteroid, and montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist.
7. A patient with COPD is prescribed a long-acting bronchodilator. Which medication is an
example of a long-acting beta-2 agonist (LABA)?
A) Albuterol
B) Levalbuterol
C) Salmeterol
, D) Ipratropium
Correct Answer: Salmeterol
Rationale: Salmeterol is a long-acting beta-2 agonist (LABA) used for maintenance therapy in
COPD and asthma. Albuterol and levalbuterol are short-acting, and ipratropium is an
anticholinergic.
8. A nurse is administering furosemide to a patient with heart failure. Which electrolyte
imbalance is the patient most at risk for?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Hypokalemia
C) Hypernatremia
D) Hypermagnesemia
Correct Answer: Hypokalemia
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that inhibits sodium and chloride reabsorption in the
loop of Henle, leading to increased potassium excretion and a high risk for hypokalemia.
9. A patient is prescribed spironolactone. The nurse understands that this medication is
classified as which type of diuretic?
A) Loop diuretic
B) Thiazide diuretic
C) Potassium-sparing diuretic
D) Osmotic diuretic
Correct Answer: Potassium-sparing diuretic
Galen College
1. A nurse is providing teaching to a patient prescribed isoniazid (INH) for tuberculosis. Which
instruction is most important to prevent a common adverse effect?
A) "Take vitamin C to increase the drug's effectiveness."
B) "Avoid foods high in tyramine to prevent a hypertensive crisis."
C) "Take vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) to prevent peripheral neuropathy."
D) "Monitor your urine for a red-orange discoloration."
Correct Answer: "Take vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) to prevent peripheral neuropathy."
Rationale: Isoniazid can cause peripheral neuropathy due to the depletion of vitamin B6
(pyridoxine). Supplementation with vitamin B6 is recommended to prevent this common side
effect. Red-orange urine is associated with rifampin, not INH.
2. The nurse is caring for a patient taking rifampin for tuberculosis. The patient's urine is a red-
orange color. What is the nurse's best action?
A) Collect a urine culture and sensitivity.
B) Document the finding as a harmless and expected side effect.
C) Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
D) Increase the patient's fluid intake to dilute the urine.
Correct Answer: Document the finding as a harmless and expected side effect.
Rationale: Rifampin is known to cause a harmless red-orange discoloration of urine, sweat, and
tears. The nurse should document this expected finding and provide patient education to
prevent alarm.
,3. A patient is prescribed a first-generation antihistamine. What is the most critical safety
instruction for the nurse to provide?
A) "Take this medication on an empty stomach."
B) "Avoid driving or operating heavy machinery."
C) "Increase your intake of high-fiber foods."
D) "Report any changes in your urine color."
Correct Answer: "Avoid driving or operating heavy machinery."
Rationale: First-generation antihistamines, such as diphenhydramine, are highly sedating.
Patients should be warned about drowsiness and advised to avoid activities that require mental
alertness.
4. A patient is switching from diphenhydramine to loratadine for allergy relief. What benefit of
loratadine should the nurse emphasize?
A) It has a faster onset of action.
B) It has fewer sedative effects.
C) It is more effective for severe allergic reactions.
D) It does not interact with other medications.
Correct Answer: It has fewer sedative effects.
Rationale: Loratadine is a second-generation antihistamine that is less lipophilic and does not
cross the blood-brain barrier as readily, resulting in fewer sedative effects compared to first-
generation antihistamines like diphenhydramine.
5. A patient is prescribed an antitussive medication. Which side effect should the nurse include
in the patient teaching?
,A) Diarrhea and abdominal cramping.
B) Headache and hypertension.
C) Drowsiness and dizziness.
D) Tachycardia and palpitations.
Correct Answer: Drowsiness and dizziness.
Rationale: Antitussives, particularly those with opioid properties like codeine, commonly cause
central nervous system depression leading to drowsiness and dizziness.
6. A patient with asthma is prescribed a bronchodilator. Which medication is a short-acting
beta-2 agonist used for quick relief?
A) Albuterol
B) Salmeterol
C) Fluticasone
D) Montelukast
Correct Answer: Albuterol
Rationale: Albuterol is a short-acting beta-2 agonist (SABA) used as a rescue medication for
acute bronchospasm. Salmeterol is a long-acting beta-agonist (LABA), fluticasone is a
corticosteroid, and montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist.
7. A patient with COPD is prescribed a long-acting bronchodilator. Which medication is an
example of a long-acting beta-2 agonist (LABA)?
A) Albuterol
B) Levalbuterol
C) Salmeterol
, D) Ipratropium
Correct Answer: Salmeterol
Rationale: Salmeterol is a long-acting beta-2 agonist (LABA) used for maintenance therapy in
COPD and asthma. Albuterol and levalbuterol are short-acting, and ipratropium is an
anticholinergic.
8. A nurse is administering furosemide to a patient with heart failure. Which electrolyte
imbalance is the patient most at risk for?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Hypokalemia
C) Hypernatremia
D) Hypermagnesemia
Correct Answer: Hypokalemia
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that inhibits sodium and chloride reabsorption in the
loop of Henle, leading to increased potassium excretion and a high risk for hypokalemia.
9. A patient is prescribed spironolactone. The nurse understands that this medication is
classified as which type of diuretic?
A) Loop diuretic
B) Thiazide diuretic
C) Potassium-sparing diuretic
D) Osmotic diuretic
Correct Answer: Potassium-sparing diuretic
