NRNP 6675 Midterm Exam | UPDATED Questions with 100%
Verified Answers
Walden University • NRNP 6675
Q1: Discrepancy between anatomical sex and gender is known as?
A: B) Gender Discordance
Q2: Which of the following are risk factors for neuroleptic malignant syndrome? Select all that apply
A: Rapid dose escalation; parental route of administration; higher potency typical antipsychotics
Q3: Antipsychotic medication provides D2 blockage in the meso- coritcal pathway causing which of the
following effects?
A: B) Increases EPS Incorrect: reduces negative s/s, causes prolactinemia, reduces positive symptoms
Q4: Phencyclidine (PCP) and ketamine exert their unique behavioral effects by blocking which of the
following receptors?
A: D) NMDA type receptors Incorrect: GABA, serotonin, dopamine "receptors"
Q5: The diagnosis used to describe a syndrome characterized by specific s/s resulting from recent ingestion
or exposure to a substance is known as which of the folllowing?
A: C) Substance use disorder Incorrect: substance intox, substance withdrawal, all of the above
Q6: Abnormal involuntary movements in a rhythmic pattern affecting the face, mouth, tongue jaw is known
as which of the following?
A: C) Tardive dyskinesia Incorrect: akathisia, dystonia, EPS
Q7: A deeply held belief despite evidence to the contrary, lasting at least 1 month, without prominent
hallucinations, with functional impairment that relates to the delusional system disorder called?
A: Delusional disorder
Q8: Which of the following is true about preoccupation with castration?
A: A) This can be serious and life threatening if castration is carried out without medical supervision Incorrect: consistent
with transvestiatic disorder, other specified paraphillic disorder, or sexual machochism disorder
,Q9: Which of the following is a system that provides a uniform language for describing medical and surgical
procedures and diagnostics services rendered by clinicians?
A: CPT Incorrect: HIPPA, DSM5-, DRG
Q10: A patient on Chlorpromazine states his orgasm is dry and afterwards he will commonly have milky
urine. The APRN realizes this is which of the following?
A: A) This is likely a harmless response to the Chlorpromazine "Thorazine"
Q11: A condition which results from absence of second female sex chromosome (XO) and is associated with
web neck, dwarfism, cubitus valgus and infertility is known as which of the following?
A: B) Turners Syndrome Turners syndrome: tx involves hormone therapy; fertility treatments for women when they
decide to have a baby
Q12: Which of the following would be characterized as a negative s/s of schizophrenia?
A: B & C only B) impaired social and occupational functioning C) isolation and impaired self-care
Q13: Which of the following are keys to distinguishing OCD from psychosis?
A: Patients with OCD can almost always acknowledge the unreasonable nature of their symptoms
Q14: A federal program administered nationally and locally which covers enrolled individuals 65+ who pays
premiums and disabled individuals
A: Both A& B (Medicare and Medicaid)
Q15: Having an adequate legal description of nurse practitioner (NP) scope of practice according to state law
is important for which of the following reasons?
A: All of the above (to avoid any charges of practicing medicine without a license, to place accountability for both
benefits and harm to patients squarely on the NP, to get reimbursed for physician services when provided by a NP
Q16: Which of the following is the most widely consumed psychoactive substance?
A: B) Caffeine Incorrect: alcohol, heroin, cannabis
Q17: Which of the following is used to tx TD?
A: None of the above (cogentin, artane, catapress)
,Q18: The APRN consensus model did which of the following?
A: B & C B) adult and gerontology were merged and identified as PCP or acute care C) psychiatric mental health foci
were stipulated as across the lifespan
Q19: Which of the following behaviors are associated with an alcohol blood level of 0.05%?
A: B) Thought judgement and restraints are impaired
Q20: According to HIPPA, which of the following must the NP share their NPI with? Check all the above
A: A) Health Plans B) Other providers C) Any entity that may need it for a billing purpose
Q21: A patient presents with delusions, disorganized thoughts, and speech with poor self care all of which
has persisted for the past 7 months. The APRN knowns this presentation means what diagnosis?
A: Schizophrenia
Q22: Major neurotransmitters possibly involved in developing substance abuse and substance dependence
are which of the following?
A: A) Dopamine Incorrect: GABA, serotonin, A& B only
Q23: The dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia, which of the following?
A: A) Schizophrenia results from too much dopaminergic activity incorrect: results from a deprivation of dopamine
Q24: A patient reports a panic attack several years ago in an elevator and since then has avoided elevators.
The pt meets the criteria for:
A: B) Specific phobia
Q25: A patient with a substance use disorder who does not meet clinical criteria for hospitalization but lacks
sufficient social and vocational skills and lack substance-free social supports is to
A: D) All of the above (Residential tx, partial hospitalization, outpt tx)
Q26: Obscene phone calling to an unsuspecting partner for sexual arousal is known as?
A: C) Telephone Scatologia (not telephillia, partialism, normal adolescent prank)
, Q27: The main psychological difference between fear and anxiety is best described by which of these
statements?
A: B) Anxiety is insidious, fear is sudden
Q28: A diffuse, unpleasant, vague sense of apprehension often accompanied by autonomic symptoms varies
upon persons is commonly known as which of the following?
A: C) Normal anxiety (incorrect- fear, stress, pathological anxiety
Q29: If a pregnancy begins while the woman is taking high doses of methadone and withdrawal is desired
during which trimester is the least hazardous?
A: D) Withdrawal from methadone should never be done while the woman is pregnant
Q30: Neurochemical or neurophysiological changes in the body that results from the repeated administration
of a drug is known as which of the following?
A: C) Neuroadaption incorrect: cross-tolerance, neurotransformation, neurocognitive adjustment
Q31: The recurrent and intense sexual arousal from the physical and psychological suffering of another
person is known as which of the following?
A: C) Sexual sadism
Q32: Which of the following is not consistent with the onset of OCD?
A: D) The onset of OCD is typically preceded by OCD personality traits True answers about OCD: -more than 1/2 of pts
with OCD have a sudden onset of symptoms -the onset of symptoms for about 50-70% of patients occurs after a
stressful event -most patients keep their symptoms secret initially
Q33: The recurrent urge to expose one's genitals to a stranger is known ass which of the following?
A: C) Exhibitionism
Q34: Which of the following patients would be appropriate for hospitalization for substance use disorder?
Select all that apply
A: D) A&B only (Patients who have a substance overdose who cannot be safely tx in an outpt setting & pts who are at
risk for severe or medically complicated withdrawal symptoms
Verified Answers
Walden University • NRNP 6675
Q1: Discrepancy between anatomical sex and gender is known as?
A: B) Gender Discordance
Q2: Which of the following are risk factors for neuroleptic malignant syndrome? Select all that apply
A: Rapid dose escalation; parental route of administration; higher potency typical antipsychotics
Q3: Antipsychotic medication provides D2 blockage in the meso- coritcal pathway causing which of the
following effects?
A: B) Increases EPS Incorrect: reduces negative s/s, causes prolactinemia, reduces positive symptoms
Q4: Phencyclidine (PCP) and ketamine exert their unique behavioral effects by blocking which of the
following receptors?
A: D) NMDA type receptors Incorrect: GABA, serotonin, dopamine "receptors"
Q5: The diagnosis used to describe a syndrome characterized by specific s/s resulting from recent ingestion
or exposure to a substance is known as which of the folllowing?
A: C) Substance use disorder Incorrect: substance intox, substance withdrawal, all of the above
Q6: Abnormal involuntary movements in a rhythmic pattern affecting the face, mouth, tongue jaw is known
as which of the following?
A: C) Tardive dyskinesia Incorrect: akathisia, dystonia, EPS
Q7: A deeply held belief despite evidence to the contrary, lasting at least 1 month, without prominent
hallucinations, with functional impairment that relates to the delusional system disorder called?
A: Delusional disorder
Q8: Which of the following is true about preoccupation with castration?
A: A) This can be serious and life threatening if castration is carried out without medical supervision Incorrect: consistent
with transvestiatic disorder, other specified paraphillic disorder, or sexual machochism disorder
,Q9: Which of the following is a system that provides a uniform language for describing medical and surgical
procedures and diagnostics services rendered by clinicians?
A: CPT Incorrect: HIPPA, DSM5-, DRG
Q10: A patient on Chlorpromazine states his orgasm is dry and afterwards he will commonly have milky
urine. The APRN realizes this is which of the following?
A: A) This is likely a harmless response to the Chlorpromazine "Thorazine"
Q11: A condition which results from absence of second female sex chromosome (XO) and is associated with
web neck, dwarfism, cubitus valgus and infertility is known as which of the following?
A: B) Turners Syndrome Turners syndrome: tx involves hormone therapy; fertility treatments for women when they
decide to have a baby
Q12: Which of the following would be characterized as a negative s/s of schizophrenia?
A: B & C only B) impaired social and occupational functioning C) isolation and impaired self-care
Q13: Which of the following are keys to distinguishing OCD from psychosis?
A: Patients with OCD can almost always acknowledge the unreasonable nature of their symptoms
Q14: A federal program administered nationally and locally which covers enrolled individuals 65+ who pays
premiums and disabled individuals
A: Both A& B (Medicare and Medicaid)
Q15: Having an adequate legal description of nurse practitioner (NP) scope of practice according to state law
is important for which of the following reasons?
A: All of the above (to avoid any charges of practicing medicine without a license, to place accountability for both
benefits and harm to patients squarely on the NP, to get reimbursed for physician services when provided by a NP
Q16: Which of the following is the most widely consumed psychoactive substance?
A: B) Caffeine Incorrect: alcohol, heroin, cannabis
Q17: Which of the following is used to tx TD?
A: None of the above (cogentin, artane, catapress)
,Q18: The APRN consensus model did which of the following?
A: B & C B) adult and gerontology were merged and identified as PCP or acute care C) psychiatric mental health foci
were stipulated as across the lifespan
Q19: Which of the following behaviors are associated with an alcohol blood level of 0.05%?
A: B) Thought judgement and restraints are impaired
Q20: According to HIPPA, which of the following must the NP share their NPI with? Check all the above
A: A) Health Plans B) Other providers C) Any entity that may need it for a billing purpose
Q21: A patient presents with delusions, disorganized thoughts, and speech with poor self care all of which
has persisted for the past 7 months. The APRN knowns this presentation means what diagnosis?
A: Schizophrenia
Q22: Major neurotransmitters possibly involved in developing substance abuse and substance dependence
are which of the following?
A: A) Dopamine Incorrect: GABA, serotonin, A& B only
Q23: The dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia, which of the following?
A: A) Schizophrenia results from too much dopaminergic activity incorrect: results from a deprivation of dopamine
Q24: A patient reports a panic attack several years ago in an elevator and since then has avoided elevators.
The pt meets the criteria for:
A: B) Specific phobia
Q25: A patient with a substance use disorder who does not meet clinical criteria for hospitalization but lacks
sufficient social and vocational skills and lack substance-free social supports is to
A: D) All of the above (Residential tx, partial hospitalization, outpt tx)
Q26: Obscene phone calling to an unsuspecting partner for sexual arousal is known as?
A: C) Telephone Scatologia (not telephillia, partialism, normal adolescent prank)
, Q27: The main psychological difference between fear and anxiety is best described by which of these
statements?
A: B) Anxiety is insidious, fear is sudden
Q28: A diffuse, unpleasant, vague sense of apprehension often accompanied by autonomic symptoms varies
upon persons is commonly known as which of the following?
A: C) Normal anxiety (incorrect- fear, stress, pathological anxiety
Q29: If a pregnancy begins while the woman is taking high doses of methadone and withdrawal is desired
during which trimester is the least hazardous?
A: D) Withdrawal from methadone should never be done while the woman is pregnant
Q30: Neurochemical or neurophysiological changes in the body that results from the repeated administration
of a drug is known as which of the following?
A: C) Neuroadaption incorrect: cross-tolerance, neurotransformation, neurocognitive adjustment
Q31: The recurrent and intense sexual arousal from the physical and psychological suffering of another
person is known as which of the following?
A: C) Sexual sadism
Q32: Which of the following is not consistent with the onset of OCD?
A: D) The onset of OCD is typically preceded by OCD personality traits True answers about OCD: -more than 1/2 of pts
with OCD have a sudden onset of symptoms -the onset of symptoms for about 50-70% of patients occurs after a
stressful event -most patients keep their symptoms secret initially
Q33: The recurrent urge to expose one's genitals to a stranger is known ass which of the following?
A: C) Exhibitionism
Q34: Which of the following patients would be appropriate for hospitalization for substance use disorder?
Select all that apply
A: D) A&B only (Patients who have a substance overdose who cannot be safely tx in an outpt setting & pts who are at
risk for severe or medically complicated withdrawal symptoms
