() RN Maternal Newborn ATI
Proctored Exam with Questions and Verified
Rationalized Answers, 100% Passing Score
Guarantee (best answers)
ANTEPARTUM CARE
Question 1
A nurse is teaching a client at 10 weeks of gestation about nutrition during
pregnancy. Which statement by the client indicates understanding?
A. "I should increase my iron intake to 27 mg per day."
B. "I need to double my calorie intake immediately."
C. "I should limit folic acid to 200 mcg daily."
D. "I will avoid all dairy products to prevent nausea."
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The recommended iron intake during pregnancy is 27 mg/day,
increased from 18 mg/day for non-pregnant women . Caloric needs increase only
modestly (about 340 kcal/day in the second trimester, 452 kcal/day in the third).
Folic acid needs increase to 600 mcg/day, not decrease. Dairy is a valuable source
of calcium and should not be avoided.
Question 2
A nurse is calculating the estimated date of delivery (EDD) for a client whose last
menstrual period began on April 1. Using Nägele's rule, what is the EDD?
A. January 8
B. January 15
,C. February 8
D. February 15
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Nägele's rule: subtract 3 months from the first day of the LMP and
add 7 days and 1 year. April 1 → January 1 + 7 days = January 8 .
Question 3
A nurse is reviewing a client's prenatal record. The client is G3 T1 P0 A1 L1. Which
interpretations are correct? (Select all that apply.)
A. The client has delivered one newborn at term.
B. The client has experienced no preterm labor.
C. The client has had two pregnancies.
D. The client has one living child.
E. The client has been through active labor.
Correct Answers: A, C, D
Rationale: GTPAL: G=3 (three pregnancies), T=1 (one term birth), P=0 (no
preterm births), A=1 (one abortion/miscarriage), L=1 (one living child). The client
has had 3 pregnancies, not 2. Parity (T+P+A) = 2, but gravida = 3 .
Question 4
A nurse is assessing a client who is at 32 weeks of gestation. Which findings should
the nurse recognize as probable signs of pregnancy? (Select all that apply.)
A. Goodell's sign
B. Ballottement
C. Chadwick's sign
D. Quickening
E. Fetal heart tones
, Correct Answers: A, B, C
Rationale: Probable signs include Goodell's sign (softening of the cervix),
Chadwick's sign (bluish discoloration of the cervix/vagina), and ballottement
(rebound of the fetus on palpation) . Quickening is a presumptive sign (subjective).
Fetal heart tones are a positive sign.
Question 5
A nurse is caring for a client at 7 weeks of gestation who reports nausea and
vomiting. Which instruction should the nurse include?
A. "Eat crackers or plain toast before getting out of bed."
B. "Skip breakfast and eat lunch after nausea subsides."
C. "Eat a large evening meal to compensate for missed calories."
D. "Drink large amounts of water with meals to stay hydrated."
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Eating dry, bland foods like crackers before rising helps manage
morning nausea by preventing an empty stomach, which can exacerbate
symptoms . Skipping meals worsens nausea. Large meals increase gastric
discomfort. Fluids with meals can worsen nausea and satiety.
Question 6
A nurse is teaching a client at 12 weeks of gestation who has HIV. Which
statement should the nurse include?
A. "You will need to breastfeed to provide passive immunity."
B. "You should abstain from sexual intercourse throughout pregnancy."
C. "You will receive antiretroviral therapy during pregnancy."
D. "You should avoid all prenatal vitamins."
Correct Answer: C
, Rationale: Antiretroviral therapy is initiated during pregnancy to reduce
vertical transmission risk. Breastfeeding is contraindicated with HIV in developed
countries where safe alternatives exist. Abstinence is not required. Prenatal
vitamins are safe and recommended.
Question 7
A nurse is assessing a client at 36 weeks of gestation who reports painless, bright
red vaginal bleeding. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
A. Placental abruption
B. Placenta previa
C. Uterine rupture
D. Cervical laceration
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Placenta previa classically presents with painless, bright red vaginal
bleeding in the second or third trimester . Placental abruption presents with
painful bleeding and a rigid, tender uterus. Uterine rupture is associated with
severe pain and fetal distress. Cervical laceration typically follows trauma or labor.
Question 8
A nurse is reviewing lab results for a client at 12 weeks of gestation. Which finding
should the nurse report to the provider?
A. Hemoglobin 11.5 g/dL
B. White blood cell count 12,000/mm³
C. Platelet count 90,000/mm³
D. Blood type O positive
Correct Answer: C
Proctored Exam with Questions and Verified
Rationalized Answers, 100% Passing Score
Guarantee (best answers)
ANTEPARTUM CARE
Question 1
A nurse is teaching a client at 10 weeks of gestation about nutrition during
pregnancy. Which statement by the client indicates understanding?
A. "I should increase my iron intake to 27 mg per day."
B. "I need to double my calorie intake immediately."
C. "I should limit folic acid to 200 mcg daily."
D. "I will avoid all dairy products to prevent nausea."
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The recommended iron intake during pregnancy is 27 mg/day,
increased from 18 mg/day for non-pregnant women . Caloric needs increase only
modestly (about 340 kcal/day in the second trimester, 452 kcal/day in the third).
Folic acid needs increase to 600 mcg/day, not decrease. Dairy is a valuable source
of calcium and should not be avoided.
Question 2
A nurse is calculating the estimated date of delivery (EDD) for a client whose last
menstrual period began on April 1. Using Nägele's rule, what is the EDD?
A. January 8
B. January 15
,C. February 8
D. February 15
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Nägele's rule: subtract 3 months from the first day of the LMP and
add 7 days and 1 year. April 1 → January 1 + 7 days = January 8 .
Question 3
A nurse is reviewing a client's prenatal record. The client is G3 T1 P0 A1 L1. Which
interpretations are correct? (Select all that apply.)
A. The client has delivered one newborn at term.
B. The client has experienced no preterm labor.
C. The client has had two pregnancies.
D. The client has one living child.
E. The client has been through active labor.
Correct Answers: A, C, D
Rationale: GTPAL: G=3 (three pregnancies), T=1 (one term birth), P=0 (no
preterm births), A=1 (one abortion/miscarriage), L=1 (one living child). The client
has had 3 pregnancies, not 2. Parity (T+P+A) = 2, but gravida = 3 .
Question 4
A nurse is assessing a client who is at 32 weeks of gestation. Which findings should
the nurse recognize as probable signs of pregnancy? (Select all that apply.)
A. Goodell's sign
B. Ballottement
C. Chadwick's sign
D. Quickening
E. Fetal heart tones
, Correct Answers: A, B, C
Rationale: Probable signs include Goodell's sign (softening of the cervix),
Chadwick's sign (bluish discoloration of the cervix/vagina), and ballottement
(rebound of the fetus on palpation) . Quickening is a presumptive sign (subjective).
Fetal heart tones are a positive sign.
Question 5
A nurse is caring for a client at 7 weeks of gestation who reports nausea and
vomiting. Which instruction should the nurse include?
A. "Eat crackers or plain toast before getting out of bed."
B. "Skip breakfast and eat lunch after nausea subsides."
C. "Eat a large evening meal to compensate for missed calories."
D. "Drink large amounts of water with meals to stay hydrated."
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Eating dry, bland foods like crackers before rising helps manage
morning nausea by preventing an empty stomach, which can exacerbate
symptoms . Skipping meals worsens nausea. Large meals increase gastric
discomfort. Fluids with meals can worsen nausea and satiety.
Question 6
A nurse is teaching a client at 12 weeks of gestation who has HIV. Which
statement should the nurse include?
A. "You will need to breastfeed to provide passive immunity."
B. "You should abstain from sexual intercourse throughout pregnancy."
C. "You will receive antiretroviral therapy during pregnancy."
D. "You should avoid all prenatal vitamins."
Correct Answer: C
, Rationale: Antiretroviral therapy is initiated during pregnancy to reduce
vertical transmission risk. Breastfeeding is contraindicated with HIV in developed
countries where safe alternatives exist. Abstinence is not required. Prenatal
vitamins are safe and recommended.
Question 7
A nurse is assessing a client at 36 weeks of gestation who reports painless, bright
red vaginal bleeding. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
A. Placental abruption
B. Placenta previa
C. Uterine rupture
D. Cervical laceration
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Placenta previa classically presents with painless, bright red vaginal
bleeding in the second or third trimester . Placental abruption presents with
painful bleeding and a rigid, tender uterus. Uterine rupture is associated with
severe pain and fetal distress. Cervical laceration typically follows trauma or labor.
Question 8
A nurse is reviewing lab results for a client at 12 weeks of gestation. Which finding
should the nurse report to the provider?
A. Hemoglobin 11.5 g/dL
B. White blood cell count 12,000/mm³
C. Platelet count 90,000/mm³
D. Blood type O positive
Correct Answer: C
