WGU C810 Foundation in Healthcare Data
Management 2026/2027 | ACTUAL-Style Practice
Questions & Answers, Health Information
Management Exam Prep, Data Quality, Healthcare
Records, Information Governance, Privacy,
Security, and Detailed Rationales
Question 1: A physician is completing a History and Physical (H&P) for a
patient being admitted to an acute care hospital. According to CMS
Conditions of Participation, within how many days prior to admission
must the H&P be performed?
A. 7 days
B. 14 days
C. 30 days
D. 60 days
CORRECT ANSWER: C. 30 days
Rationale: CMS Conditions of Participation require that the History and
Physical be completed no more than 30 days before admission or within 24
hours after admission for acute care hospitals.
Question 2: A patient is scheduled for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy
and is asked to sign a document indicating they understand the
procedure, risks, and alternatives. Which type of consent is this?
A. Implied consent
B. Informed consent
C. Consent to treatment
D. Notice of Privacy Practices
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Informed consent
Rationale: Informed consent is the process by which a patient is educated
about a procedure’s risks, benefits, and alternatives and then voluntarily
agrees to proceed. Surgical procedures require informed consent.
Question 3: A physician’s office needs to submit a paper claim to
Medicare because its electronic system is down. Which form should be
used?
A. UB-04
B. CMS-1500
,C. 837I
D. 837P
CORRECT ANSWER: B. CMS-1500
Rationale: The CMS-1500 is the standard paper claim form used by non-
institutional providers (physicians, suppliers) to bill Medicare and other
insurers.
Question 4: A nurse at a long-term care facility is documenting a
comprehensive assessment. What must the record include to meet
CMS requirements for long-term care facilities?
A. OASIS
B. Minimum Data Set (MDS)
C. HEDIS
D. HL7
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Minimum Data Set (MDS)
Rationale: The Minimum Data Set (MDS) is the federally mandated
assessment instrument that must be completed for residents of long-term
care facilities participating in Medicare or Medicaid.
Question 5: A state hospital system is collecting information on
inpatient discharges from hospitals in a region. Which database should
be used to collect this data?
A. HEDIS
B. OASIS
C. Uniform Hospital Discharge Data Set (UHDDS)
D. DASIS
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Uniform Hospital Discharge Data Set (UHDDS)
Rationale: The UHDDS is the core data set for inpatient discharges from
acute care hospitals, collecting uniform data elements such as principal
diagnosis, procedures, and demographics.
Question 6: A health information management director is updating the
data governance strategic plan and standardizing language across the
healthcare system to meet data regulations. Which information
governance principle is described?
,A. Accountability
B. Compliance
C. Transparency
D. Integrity
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Compliance
Rationale: Compliance in information governance refers to adhering to
laws, regulations, and organizational policies that govern data
management and usage.
Question 7: What does a stakeholder analysis of a data governance
system identify?
A. Goals of the program
B. Qualifications of data managers
C. Needs of those interested in the data
D. Measures to evaluate program effectiveness
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Needs of those interested in the data
Rationale: Stakeholder analysis identifies the needs, interests, and
influence of individuals and groups who have a stake in the data
governance system.
Question 8: What is a best practice for data governance that should be
incorporated into every program?
A. Establishing revenue cycle processes
B. Identifying subject matter experts
C. Specifying data quality requirements
D. Establishing organizational legal processes
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Specifying data quality requirements
Rationale: Specifying data quality requirements is a fundamental best
practice in data governance, ensuring that data is accurate, complete, and
fit for its intended use.
Question 9: Which organization requires cancer statistics to be
reported from central registries to the national organization
responsible for cancer statistics?
, A. National Practitioner Data Bank (NPDB)
B. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
C. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS)
D. The Joint Commission
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
(CDC)
Rationale: The CDC, through the National Program of Cancer Registries,
requires central cancer registries to report cancer statistics for national
surveillance and research.
Question 10: Which organization requires reporting of medical
malpractice payments, federal licensure and certification actions, and
adverse clinical privileges actions?
A. The Joint Commission
B. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
C. National Practitioner Data Bank (NPDB)
D. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS)
CORRECT ANSWER: C. National Practitioner Data Bank (NPDB)
Rationale: The NPDB collects and discloses information relating to medical
malpractice payments, licensure actions, and adverse clinical privileges
actions against healthcare practitioners.
Question 11: A healthcare organization needs to exchange patient data
with multiple regional clinical data repositories, with requests sent
from one regional authority. Which HIE architecture is described?
A. Centralized
B. Federated
C. Hybrid
D. Decentralized
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Federated
Rationale: A federated HIE architecture allows information to flow to more
than one regional clinical data repository, with requested records sent from
one regional authority.
Question 12: Which HIE model supports uniformity of data, quick
response times to queries, and consistency in data accessibility?
Management 2026/2027 | ACTUAL-Style Practice
Questions & Answers, Health Information
Management Exam Prep, Data Quality, Healthcare
Records, Information Governance, Privacy,
Security, and Detailed Rationales
Question 1: A physician is completing a History and Physical (H&P) for a
patient being admitted to an acute care hospital. According to CMS
Conditions of Participation, within how many days prior to admission
must the H&P be performed?
A. 7 days
B. 14 days
C. 30 days
D. 60 days
CORRECT ANSWER: C. 30 days
Rationale: CMS Conditions of Participation require that the History and
Physical be completed no more than 30 days before admission or within 24
hours after admission for acute care hospitals.
Question 2: A patient is scheduled for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy
and is asked to sign a document indicating they understand the
procedure, risks, and alternatives. Which type of consent is this?
A. Implied consent
B. Informed consent
C. Consent to treatment
D. Notice of Privacy Practices
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Informed consent
Rationale: Informed consent is the process by which a patient is educated
about a procedure’s risks, benefits, and alternatives and then voluntarily
agrees to proceed. Surgical procedures require informed consent.
Question 3: A physician’s office needs to submit a paper claim to
Medicare because its electronic system is down. Which form should be
used?
A. UB-04
B. CMS-1500
,C. 837I
D. 837P
CORRECT ANSWER: B. CMS-1500
Rationale: The CMS-1500 is the standard paper claim form used by non-
institutional providers (physicians, suppliers) to bill Medicare and other
insurers.
Question 4: A nurse at a long-term care facility is documenting a
comprehensive assessment. What must the record include to meet
CMS requirements for long-term care facilities?
A. OASIS
B. Minimum Data Set (MDS)
C. HEDIS
D. HL7
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Minimum Data Set (MDS)
Rationale: The Minimum Data Set (MDS) is the federally mandated
assessment instrument that must be completed for residents of long-term
care facilities participating in Medicare or Medicaid.
Question 5: A state hospital system is collecting information on
inpatient discharges from hospitals in a region. Which database should
be used to collect this data?
A. HEDIS
B. OASIS
C. Uniform Hospital Discharge Data Set (UHDDS)
D. DASIS
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Uniform Hospital Discharge Data Set (UHDDS)
Rationale: The UHDDS is the core data set for inpatient discharges from
acute care hospitals, collecting uniform data elements such as principal
diagnosis, procedures, and demographics.
Question 6: A health information management director is updating the
data governance strategic plan and standardizing language across the
healthcare system to meet data regulations. Which information
governance principle is described?
,A. Accountability
B. Compliance
C. Transparency
D. Integrity
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Compliance
Rationale: Compliance in information governance refers to adhering to
laws, regulations, and organizational policies that govern data
management and usage.
Question 7: What does a stakeholder analysis of a data governance
system identify?
A. Goals of the program
B. Qualifications of data managers
C. Needs of those interested in the data
D. Measures to evaluate program effectiveness
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Needs of those interested in the data
Rationale: Stakeholder analysis identifies the needs, interests, and
influence of individuals and groups who have a stake in the data
governance system.
Question 8: What is a best practice for data governance that should be
incorporated into every program?
A. Establishing revenue cycle processes
B. Identifying subject matter experts
C. Specifying data quality requirements
D. Establishing organizational legal processes
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Specifying data quality requirements
Rationale: Specifying data quality requirements is a fundamental best
practice in data governance, ensuring that data is accurate, complete, and
fit for its intended use.
Question 9: Which organization requires cancer statistics to be
reported from central registries to the national organization
responsible for cancer statistics?
, A. National Practitioner Data Bank (NPDB)
B. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
C. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS)
D. The Joint Commission
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
(CDC)
Rationale: The CDC, through the National Program of Cancer Registries,
requires central cancer registries to report cancer statistics for national
surveillance and research.
Question 10: Which organization requires reporting of medical
malpractice payments, federal licensure and certification actions, and
adverse clinical privileges actions?
A. The Joint Commission
B. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
C. National Practitioner Data Bank (NPDB)
D. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS)
CORRECT ANSWER: C. National Practitioner Data Bank (NPDB)
Rationale: The NPDB collects and discloses information relating to medical
malpractice payments, licensure actions, and adverse clinical privileges
actions against healthcare practitioners.
Question 11: A healthcare organization needs to exchange patient data
with multiple regional clinical data repositories, with requests sent
from one regional authority. Which HIE architecture is described?
A. Centralized
B. Federated
C. Hybrid
D. Decentralized
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Federated
Rationale: A federated HIE architecture allows information to flow to more
than one regional clinical data repository, with requested records sent from
one regional authority.
Question 12: Which HIE model supports uniformity of data, quick
response times to queries, and consistency in data accessibility?
