NSG 6020 3P Exam South University 2026/2027
Latest Questions with Answers Complete Study
Question 1. Which headache sign does not warrant an immediate
investigation?
A. Aggravated or relieved by change of position
B. Precipitated by Valsalva maneuver
C. New onset after age 50
D. Relieved with use of common analgesic
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A headache that is relieved by common analgesics is typically a primary
headache (like tension or mild migraine). Red flags requiring immediate
investigation (secondary headache) include positional changes (increased ICP),
Valsalva maneuver (posterior fossa lesion), and new onset after age 50 (temporal
arteritis, mass lesion).
Question 2. During a migraine, what happens to the cerebral arteries?
A. They dilate
B. They constrict
C. They vibrate
D. They pulsate
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The pathophysiology of a migraine involves an initial phase of
vasoconstriction (aura), followed by a reactive vasodilation of the cerebral arteries,
which contributes to the throbbing headache.
Question 3. You are evaluating a 15-year-old patient for bipolar disorder. His
parents tell you that he has severe mood swings, is easily distracted, and
constantly corrects his teachers. You would have a high suspicion for bipolar
if which symptom was present?
A. He is forgetful
B. He sleeps less than 4 hours nightly
C. He does not complete tasks
D. He blurts out answers in class inappropriately
Correct Answer: B
,Rationale: A decreased need for sleep (sleeping less than 4 hours and feeling
rested) is a cardinal symptom of a manic or hypomanic episode. Distractibility,
forgetfulness, and impulsivity can be seen in ADHD, but decreased need for sleep
is highly specific to bipolar disorder.
Question 4. Which risk factor is not associated with breast cancer?
A. Use of hormone replacement therapy
B. Personal or family history of breast cancer
C. Postmenopausal obesity
D. Low socioeconomic status
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Low socioeconomic status is not a direct biological risk factor for breast
cancer. However, it can affect access to screening and stage at diagnosis. The other
options are well-established biological and environmental risk factors.
Question 5. A 26-year-old woman with bulimia is likely to be:
A. Of average weight
B. Not concerned with weight
C. Very underweight
D. Very overweight
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Individuals with bulimia nervosa typically maintain a normal or slightly
above-average weight, whereas those with anorexia nervosa are significantly
underweight. Both have a severe disturbance in body image.
Question 6. A 65-year-old male presents with sudden onset of severe, tearing
chest pain radiating to the back. He has a history of hypertension. Which of
the following is the most appropriate initial diagnostic test?
A. ECG
B. Chest X-ray
C. CT angiography
D. Troponin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The presentation is classic for aortic dissection. A chest X-ray may
show a widened mediastinum, which is a common initial finding prompting further
,investigation (like CT angiography). While ECG and troponin rule out MI, a CXR
is the quickest initial bedside test for dissection.
Question 7. A 45-year-old female presents with fatigue, weight gain, and cold
intolerance. Her TSH is elevated. Which of the following is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Hyperthyroidism
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Subclinical hyperthyroidism
D. Euthyroid sick syndrome
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Elevated TSH with symptoms of weight gain, cold intolerance, and
fatigue is highly indicative of primary hypothyroidism. The elevated TSH is a
compensatory response to low thyroid hormone levels.
Question 8. Which medication is considered first-line for the treatment of
hypertension in a patient with diabetes and proteinuria?
A. Metoprolol
B. Lisinopril
C. Amlodipine
D. Hydrochlorothiazide
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: ACE inhibitors (like lisinopril) or ARBs are first-line in diabetic
patients with proteinuria because they have renoprotective effects, slowing the
progression of nephropathy, in addition to lowering blood pressure.
Question 9. A 28-year-old female presents with dysuria, frequency, and
urgency. Urinalysis shows positive leukocyte esterase and nitrites. What is the
most likely causative organism?
A. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
B. Escherichia coli
C. Klebsiella pneumoniae
D. Candida albicans
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Escherichia coli is the most common cause of uncomplicated urinary
tract infections (UTIs), accounting for approximately 80-85% of cases.
, Question 10. A 60-year-old male with COPD presents with increased
shortness of breath and a productive cough. Which of the following physical
exam findings is most consistent with COPD?
A. Barrel chest
B. Pectus excavatum
C. Egophony
D. Dullness to percussion
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A barrel chest (increased anterior-posterior diameter) is a classic
physical exam finding in COPD due to chronic air trapping and hyperinflation of
the lungs.
Question 11. A 3-year-old child presents with a barky cough, inspiratory
stridor, and hoarseness. What is the first-line treatment?
A. Albuterol
B. Dexamethasone
C. Amoxicillin
D. Racemic epinephrine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This presentation is classic for croup (laryngotracheobronchitis).
Dexamethasone is the first-line treatment to reduce airway inflammation. Racemic
epinephrine is used for moderate to severe distress.
Question 12. Which of the following is a classic side effect of ACE inhibitors?
A. Dry cough
B. Bradycardia
C. Peripheral edema
D. Hyperkalemia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A persistent, dry cough is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors,
caused by the accumulation of bradykinin. It often necessitates switching to an
ARB.
Question 13. A 50-year-old female presents with a painless, hard, irregularly
shaped breast lump. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Mammogram
Latest Questions with Answers Complete Study
Question 1. Which headache sign does not warrant an immediate
investigation?
A. Aggravated or relieved by change of position
B. Precipitated by Valsalva maneuver
C. New onset after age 50
D. Relieved with use of common analgesic
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A headache that is relieved by common analgesics is typically a primary
headache (like tension or mild migraine). Red flags requiring immediate
investigation (secondary headache) include positional changes (increased ICP),
Valsalva maneuver (posterior fossa lesion), and new onset after age 50 (temporal
arteritis, mass lesion).
Question 2. During a migraine, what happens to the cerebral arteries?
A. They dilate
B. They constrict
C. They vibrate
D. They pulsate
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The pathophysiology of a migraine involves an initial phase of
vasoconstriction (aura), followed by a reactive vasodilation of the cerebral arteries,
which contributes to the throbbing headache.
Question 3. You are evaluating a 15-year-old patient for bipolar disorder. His
parents tell you that he has severe mood swings, is easily distracted, and
constantly corrects his teachers. You would have a high suspicion for bipolar
if which symptom was present?
A. He is forgetful
B. He sleeps less than 4 hours nightly
C. He does not complete tasks
D. He blurts out answers in class inappropriately
Correct Answer: B
,Rationale: A decreased need for sleep (sleeping less than 4 hours and feeling
rested) is a cardinal symptom of a manic or hypomanic episode. Distractibility,
forgetfulness, and impulsivity can be seen in ADHD, but decreased need for sleep
is highly specific to bipolar disorder.
Question 4. Which risk factor is not associated with breast cancer?
A. Use of hormone replacement therapy
B. Personal or family history of breast cancer
C. Postmenopausal obesity
D. Low socioeconomic status
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Low socioeconomic status is not a direct biological risk factor for breast
cancer. However, it can affect access to screening and stage at diagnosis. The other
options are well-established biological and environmental risk factors.
Question 5. A 26-year-old woman with bulimia is likely to be:
A. Of average weight
B. Not concerned with weight
C. Very underweight
D. Very overweight
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Individuals with bulimia nervosa typically maintain a normal or slightly
above-average weight, whereas those with anorexia nervosa are significantly
underweight. Both have a severe disturbance in body image.
Question 6. A 65-year-old male presents with sudden onset of severe, tearing
chest pain radiating to the back. He has a history of hypertension. Which of
the following is the most appropriate initial diagnostic test?
A. ECG
B. Chest X-ray
C. CT angiography
D. Troponin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The presentation is classic for aortic dissection. A chest X-ray may
show a widened mediastinum, which is a common initial finding prompting further
,investigation (like CT angiography). While ECG and troponin rule out MI, a CXR
is the quickest initial bedside test for dissection.
Question 7. A 45-year-old female presents with fatigue, weight gain, and cold
intolerance. Her TSH is elevated. Which of the following is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Hyperthyroidism
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Subclinical hyperthyroidism
D. Euthyroid sick syndrome
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Elevated TSH with symptoms of weight gain, cold intolerance, and
fatigue is highly indicative of primary hypothyroidism. The elevated TSH is a
compensatory response to low thyroid hormone levels.
Question 8. Which medication is considered first-line for the treatment of
hypertension in a patient with diabetes and proteinuria?
A. Metoprolol
B. Lisinopril
C. Amlodipine
D. Hydrochlorothiazide
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: ACE inhibitors (like lisinopril) or ARBs are first-line in diabetic
patients with proteinuria because they have renoprotective effects, slowing the
progression of nephropathy, in addition to lowering blood pressure.
Question 9. A 28-year-old female presents with dysuria, frequency, and
urgency. Urinalysis shows positive leukocyte esterase and nitrites. What is the
most likely causative organism?
A. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
B. Escherichia coli
C. Klebsiella pneumoniae
D. Candida albicans
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Escherichia coli is the most common cause of uncomplicated urinary
tract infections (UTIs), accounting for approximately 80-85% of cases.
, Question 10. A 60-year-old male with COPD presents with increased
shortness of breath and a productive cough. Which of the following physical
exam findings is most consistent with COPD?
A. Barrel chest
B. Pectus excavatum
C. Egophony
D. Dullness to percussion
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A barrel chest (increased anterior-posterior diameter) is a classic
physical exam finding in COPD due to chronic air trapping and hyperinflation of
the lungs.
Question 11. A 3-year-old child presents with a barky cough, inspiratory
stridor, and hoarseness. What is the first-line treatment?
A. Albuterol
B. Dexamethasone
C. Amoxicillin
D. Racemic epinephrine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This presentation is classic for croup (laryngotracheobronchitis).
Dexamethasone is the first-line treatment to reduce airway inflammation. Racemic
epinephrine is used for moderate to severe distress.
Question 12. Which of the following is a classic side effect of ACE inhibitors?
A. Dry cough
B. Bradycardia
C. Peripheral edema
D. Hyperkalemia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A persistent, dry cough is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors,
caused by the accumulation of bradykinin. It often necessitates switching to an
ARB.
Question 13. A 50-year-old female presents with a painless, hard, irregularly
shaped breast lump. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Mammogram
