ABFAS EXAM REVIEW QUESTIONS
AND ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED. JUST
RELEASED
1. Which antibiotic is considered the gold standard for treating Methicillin-resistant
Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) in a patient with end-stage renal disease where dose
monitoring is difficult?
A. Vancomycin
B. Daptomycin
C. Linezolid
D. Clindamycin
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Linezolid is an oxazolidinone that does not require renal dose
adjustment and has 100% bioavailability, making it superior for outpatient or complex
renal management compared to Vancomycin which requires monitoring.
2. In the Lauge-Hansen classification of ankle fractures, which stage of the Supination-
External Rotation (SER) sequence involves a fracture of the medial malleolus or rupture of the
deltoid ligament?
A. Stage I
,B. Stage II
C. Stage IV
D. Stage III
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: SER Stage IV is the final stage, involving failure of the medial
structures (medial malleolus fracture or deltoid ligament rupture). Stage I involves the
anterior tibiofibular ligament, Stage II the fibula, and Stage III the posterior structures.
3. What is the most common location for a tarsal coalition to occur?
A. Talo-navicular
B. Talocalcaneal (middle facet)
C. Calcaneo-navicular
D. Naviculo-cuneiform
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: While calcaneonavicular coalitions are common, the
talocalcaneal coalition at the middle facet is statistically the most frequently encountered in
clinical studies.
4. Which of the following local anesthetics has the longest duration of action?
A. Bupivacaine
B. Mepivacaine
, C. Lidocaine
D. Procaine
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Bupivacaine (Marcaine) is a long-acting amide-type local
anesthetic with a duration of 4 to 8 hours, significantly longer than Lidocaine or
Mepivacaine.
5. According to the Sanders classification, a calcaneal fracture with three articular fragments
of the posterior facet is categorized as:
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type IV
D. Type III
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Sanders Type III involves three fragments (two fracture lines) of
the posterior facet. Type I is non-displaced, Type II is two fragments, and Type IV is
comminuted.
6. Which radiographic angle is used to determine the height of the longitudinal arch, with a
normal range typically between 15 and 30 degrees?
A. Calcaneal Pitch
AND ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED. JUST
RELEASED
1. Which antibiotic is considered the gold standard for treating Methicillin-resistant
Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) in a patient with end-stage renal disease where dose
monitoring is difficult?
A. Vancomycin
B. Daptomycin
C. Linezolid
D. Clindamycin
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Linezolid is an oxazolidinone that does not require renal dose
adjustment and has 100% bioavailability, making it superior for outpatient or complex
renal management compared to Vancomycin which requires monitoring.
2. In the Lauge-Hansen classification of ankle fractures, which stage of the Supination-
External Rotation (SER) sequence involves a fracture of the medial malleolus or rupture of the
deltoid ligament?
A. Stage I
,B. Stage II
C. Stage IV
D. Stage III
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: SER Stage IV is the final stage, involving failure of the medial
structures (medial malleolus fracture or deltoid ligament rupture). Stage I involves the
anterior tibiofibular ligament, Stage II the fibula, and Stage III the posterior structures.
3. What is the most common location for a tarsal coalition to occur?
A. Talo-navicular
B. Talocalcaneal (middle facet)
C. Calcaneo-navicular
D. Naviculo-cuneiform
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: While calcaneonavicular coalitions are common, the
talocalcaneal coalition at the middle facet is statistically the most frequently encountered in
clinical studies.
4. Which of the following local anesthetics has the longest duration of action?
A. Bupivacaine
B. Mepivacaine
, C. Lidocaine
D. Procaine
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Bupivacaine (Marcaine) is a long-acting amide-type local
anesthetic with a duration of 4 to 8 hours, significantly longer than Lidocaine or
Mepivacaine.
5. According to the Sanders classification, a calcaneal fracture with three articular fragments
of the posterior facet is categorized as:
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type IV
D. Type III
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Sanders Type III involves three fragments (two fracture lines) of
the posterior facet. Type I is non-displaced, Type II is two fragments, and Type IV is
comminuted.
6. Which radiographic angle is used to determine the height of the longitudinal arch, with a
normal range typically between 15 and 30 degrees?
A. Calcaneal Pitch
