ABFAS MIDTERM EXAM
COMPREHENSIVE STUDY GUIDE
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 100%
VERIFIED. JUST RELEASED
1. Which artery provides the primary blood supply to the talar body via the tarsal canal?
A. Artery of the sinus tarsi
B. Posterior tibial artery
C. Peroneal artery
D. Anterior tibial artery
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: The artery of the tarsal canal, a branch of the posterior tibial
artery, is the main blood supply to the talar body, accounting for roughly 60 percent of its
supply.
2. In the Hawkins classification of talar neck fractures, a Type III fracture is defined as:
A. Nondisplaced fracture
B. Displaced fracture with subtalar dislocation
C. Displaced fracture with subtalar and tibiotalar dislocation
D. Displaced fracture with subtalar, tibiotalar, and talonavicular dislocation
,Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Hawkins Type III involves displacement of the talar neck with
dislocation of both the subtalar and tibiotalar joints.
3. Which Sanders classification category describes a calcaneal fracture with three articular
fragments in the posterior facet?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Sanders Type III fractures are defined by two primary fracture
lines in the posterior facet resulting in three articular fragments.
4. The ‘Angle of Gissane’ is typically increased in which clinical scenario?
A. Calcaneal stress fracture
B. Tarsal coalition
C. Intra-articular calcaneal fracture
D. Pes planovalgus
Answer: C
, Conceptual Explanation: The Angle of Gissane (critical angle) typically increases when the
posterior facet collapses during an intra-articular calcaneal fracture.
5. According to the Lauge-Hansen classification, a Supination-External Rotation (SER) stage 4
injury includes:
A. Deltoid ligament rupture or medial malleolus fracture
B. Spiral fracture of the fibula
C. Posterior tibiofibular ligament rupture
D. Anterior tibiofibular ligament rupture
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: SER stage 4 is the final stage, involving the medial structures
(deltoid ligament or medial malleolus).
6. What is the gold standard for diagnosing osteomyelitis in the diabetic foot?
A. MRI with gadolinium
B. Triple phase bone scan
C. Bone biopsy and culture
D. C-reactive protein levels
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Bone biopsy for histopathology and microbiology remains the
gold standard for definitive diagnosis of osteomyelitis.
COMPREHENSIVE STUDY GUIDE
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 100%
VERIFIED. JUST RELEASED
1. Which artery provides the primary blood supply to the talar body via the tarsal canal?
A. Artery of the sinus tarsi
B. Posterior tibial artery
C. Peroneal artery
D. Anterior tibial artery
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: The artery of the tarsal canal, a branch of the posterior tibial
artery, is the main blood supply to the talar body, accounting for roughly 60 percent of its
supply.
2. In the Hawkins classification of talar neck fractures, a Type III fracture is defined as:
A. Nondisplaced fracture
B. Displaced fracture with subtalar dislocation
C. Displaced fracture with subtalar and tibiotalar dislocation
D. Displaced fracture with subtalar, tibiotalar, and talonavicular dislocation
,Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Hawkins Type III involves displacement of the talar neck with
dislocation of both the subtalar and tibiotalar joints.
3. Which Sanders classification category describes a calcaneal fracture with three articular
fragments in the posterior facet?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Sanders Type III fractures are defined by two primary fracture
lines in the posterior facet resulting in three articular fragments.
4. The ‘Angle of Gissane’ is typically increased in which clinical scenario?
A. Calcaneal stress fracture
B. Tarsal coalition
C. Intra-articular calcaneal fracture
D. Pes planovalgus
Answer: C
, Conceptual Explanation: The Angle of Gissane (critical angle) typically increases when the
posterior facet collapses during an intra-articular calcaneal fracture.
5. According to the Lauge-Hansen classification, a Supination-External Rotation (SER) stage 4
injury includes:
A. Deltoid ligament rupture or medial malleolus fracture
B. Spiral fracture of the fibula
C. Posterior tibiofibular ligament rupture
D. Anterior tibiofibular ligament rupture
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: SER stage 4 is the final stage, involving the medial structures
(deltoid ligament or medial malleolus).
6. What is the gold standard for diagnosing osteomyelitis in the diabetic foot?
A. MRI with gadolinium
B. Triple phase bone scan
C. Bone biopsy and culture
D. C-reactive protein levels
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Bone biopsy for histopathology and microbiology remains the
gold standard for definitive diagnosis of osteomyelitis.
