ABFAS FINAL EXAM COMPREHENSIVE
STUDY GUIDE QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED. JUST
RELEASED
1. According to the Hawkins classification of talar neck fractures, a Type III injury involves
which of the following?
A. Nondisplaced fracture of the talar neck
B. Talar neck fracture with subluxation or dislocation of the subtalar joint
C. Talar neck fracture with subluxation or dislocation of the subtalar and tibiotalar joints
D. Talar neck fracture with subluxation or dislocation of the subtalar, tibiotalar, and
talonavicular joints
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: A Hawkins Type III talar neck fracture involves displacement at
both the subtalar joint and the tibiotalar joint, carrying a high risk of avascular necrosis
(nearly 100%).
2. The Sanders classification for calcaneal fractures is based on the number of articular
fragments seen on which radiographic view?
A. Lateral X-ray
,B. Harris Vault view
C. Coronal CT scan through the posterior facet
D. Sagittal CT scan through the sustentaculum tali
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: The Sanders classification uses coronal CT images through the
widest part of the posterior facet to determine the number and location of fracture lines.
3. In the Lauge-Hansen classification of ankle fractures, which stage of a Supination-External
Rotation (SER) injury involves a fracture of the medial malleolus or rupture of the deltoid
ligament?
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: SER Stage 4 is the final stage, resulting in medial-side injury
(medial malleolus fracture or deltoid ligament rupture) after the lateral and posterior
structures have failed.
, 4. Which ligament is the first to be injured in an Inversion-Internal Rotation mechanism
according to the Lauge-Hansen Supination-Adduction (SAD) pattern?
A. Deltoid ligament
B. Calcaneofibular ligament (CFL)
C. Posterior talofibular ligament (PTFL)
D. Anterior talofibular ligament (ATFL)
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: SAD Stage 1 involves a transverse fracture of the lateral
malleolus or an avulsion of the lateral collateral ligaments, typically starting with the ATFL.
5. The ‘Fleck sign’ in a Lisfranc injury represents an avulsion fracture of which ligament’s
attachment?
A. Dorsal cuneonavicular ligament
B. Interosseous cuneometatarsal ligament
C. Plantar fascia medial band
D. Long plantar ligament
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: The Fleck sign is a small bony fragment seen in the second
metatarsal-medial cuneiform space, representing an avulsion of the Lisfranc ligament
(interosseous cuneometatarsal ligament).
STUDY GUIDE QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS 100% VERIFIED. JUST
RELEASED
1. According to the Hawkins classification of talar neck fractures, a Type III injury involves
which of the following?
A. Nondisplaced fracture of the talar neck
B. Talar neck fracture with subluxation or dislocation of the subtalar joint
C. Talar neck fracture with subluxation or dislocation of the subtalar and tibiotalar joints
D. Talar neck fracture with subluxation or dislocation of the subtalar, tibiotalar, and
talonavicular joints
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: A Hawkins Type III talar neck fracture involves displacement at
both the subtalar joint and the tibiotalar joint, carrying a high risk of avascular necrosis
(nearly 100%).
2. The Sanders classification for calcaneal fractures is based on the number of articular
fragments seen on which radiographic view?
A. Lateral X-ray
,B. Harris Vault view
C. Coronal CT scan through the posterior facet
D. Sagittal CT scan through the sustentaculum tali
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: The Sanders classification uses coronal CT images through the
widest part of the posterior facet to determine the number and location of fracture lines.
3. In the Lauge-Hansen classification of ankle fractures, which stage of a Supination-External
Rotation (SER) injury involves a fracture of the medial malleolus or rupture of the deltoid
ligament?
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: SER Stage 4 is the final stage, resulting in medial-side injury
(medial malleolus fracture or deltoid ligament rupture) after the lateral and posterior
structures have failed.
, 4. Which ligament is the first to be injured in an Inversion-Internal Rotation mechanism
according to the Lauge-Hansen Supination-Adduction (SAD) pattern?
A. Deltoid ligament
B. Calcaneofibular ligament (CFL)
C. Posterior talofibular ligament (PTFL)
D. Anterior talofibular ligament (ATFL)
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: SAD Stage 1 involves a transverse fracture of the lateral
malleolus or an avulsion of the lateral collateral ligaments, typically starting with the ATFL.
5. The ‘Fleck sign’ in a Lisfranc injury represents an avulsion fracture of which ligament’s
attachment?
A. Dorsal cuneonavicular ligament
B. Interosseous cuneometatarsal ligament
C. Plantar fascia medial band
D. Long plantar ligament
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: The Fleck sign is a small bony fragment seen in the second
metatarsal-medial cuneiform space, representing an avulsion of the Lisfranc ligament
(interosseous cuneometatarsal ligament).
