ABFAS FINAL EXAM COMPREHENSIVE
REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
100% VERIFIED. JUST RELEASED
1. According to the Lauge-Hansen classification, a vertical fracture of the medial malleolus is
associated with which injury pattern?
A. Supination-External Rotation Stage IV
B. Supination-Adduction Stage II
C. Pronation-Abduction Stage III
D. Pronation-External Rotation Stage II
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: In the Lauge-Hansen system, Supination-Adduction Stage II
results in a vertical fracture of the medial malleolus due to the talus being driven medially.
2. Which of the following is the mechanism of action for Vancomycin?
A. Inhibition of the 30S ribosomal subunit
B. Disruption of bacterial cell membrane potential
C. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis by binding to the D-alanyl-D-alanine portion of cell wall
precursors
D. Inhibition of DNA gyrase
,Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Vancomycin is a glycopeptide that inhibits cell wall synthesis by
binding to D-Ala-D-Ala, preventing cross-linking.
3. In the Sanders Classification of calcaneal fractures, which imaging view and anatomical
landmark are used to determine the type?
A. Sagittal CT scan evaluating the calcaneocuboid joint
B. Axial CT scan through the sustentaculum tali
C. Coronal CT scan through the widest point of the posterior facet
D. Broden’s view X-ray evaluating the sinus tarsi
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: The Sanders classification is based on the number and location
of primary fracture lines seen on coronal CT images through the posterior facet of the
calcaneus.
4. Which Hawkins classification of talar neck fractures is associated with the highest risk of
avascular necrosis (AVN), reaching nearly 100%?
A. Hawkins Type IV
B. Hawkins Type II
C. Hawkins Type III
D. Hawkins Type I
, Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Hawkins Type IV includes a talar neck fracture with dislocation
of the subtalar, tibiotalar, and talonavicular joints, carrying a near 100% risk of AVN.
5. During the Eichenholtz Stage I of Charcot Neuroarthropathy, what is the primary clinical
and radiographic finding?
A. Coalescence and bone healing
B. Developmental fragmentation and joint laxity
C. Remodeling and rounding of bone ends
D. Complete arthrodesis of the affected joints
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: Stage I (Developmental) is characterized by acute inflammation,
joint laxity, debris formation, and fragmentation of bone.
6. A Gustilo-Anderson Grade IIIB open fracture is defined by:
A. A wound greater than 10 cm with adequate soft tissue coverage
B. A clean wound less than 1 cm in length
C. An open fracture with associated vascular injury requiring repair
D. Extensive soft tissue injury with periosteal stripping and requirement of a flap for
coverage
Answer: D
REVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
100% VERIFIED. JUST RELEASED
1. According to the Lauge-Hansen classification, a vertical fracture of the medial malleolus is
associated with which injury pattern?
A. Supination-External Rotation Stage IV
B. Supination-Adduction Stage II
C. Pronation-Abduction Stage III
D. Pronation-External Rotation Stage II
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: In the Lauge-Hansen system, Supination-Adduction Stage II
results in a vertical fracture of the medial malleolus due to the talus being driven medially.
2. Which of the following is the mechanism of action for Vancomycin?
A. Inhibition of the 30S ribosomal subunit
B. Disruption of bacterial cell membrane potential
C. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis by binding to the D-alanyl-D-alanine portion of cell wall
precursors
D. Inhibition of DNA gyrase
,Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Vancomycin is a glycopeptide that inhibits cell wall synthesis by
binding to D-Ala-D-Ala, preventing cross-linking.
3. In the Sanders Classification of calcaneal fractures, which imaging view and anatomical
landmark are used to determine the type?
A. Sagittal CT scan evaluating the calcaneocuboid joint
B. Axial CT scan through the sustentaculum tali
C. Coronal CT scan through the widest point of the posterior facet
D. Broden’s view X-ray evaluating the sinus tarsi
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: The Sanders classification is based on the number and location
of primary fracture lines seen on coronal CT images through the posterior facet of the
calcaneus.
4. Which Hawkins classification of talar neck fractures is associated with the highest risk of
avascular necrosis (AVN), reaching nearly 100%?
A. Hawkins Type IV
B. Hawkins Type II
C. Hawkins Type III
D. Hawkins Type I
, Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Hawkins Type IV includes a talar neck fracture with dislocation
of the subtalar, tibiotalar, and talonavicular joints, carrying a near 100% risk of AVN.
5. During the Eichenholtz Stage I of Charcot Neuroarthropathy, what is the primary clinical
and radiographic finding?
A. Coalescence and bone healing
B. Developmental fragmentation and joint laxity
C. Remodeling and rounding of bone ends
D. Complete arthrodesis of the affected joints
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: Stage I (Developmental) is characterized by acute inflammation,
joint laxity, debris formation, and fragmentation of bone.
6. A Gustilo-Anderson Grade IIIB open fracture is defined by:
A. A wound greater than 10 cm with adequate soft tissue coverage
B. A clean wound less than 1 cm in length
C. An open fracture with associated vascular injury requiring repair
D. Extensive soft tissue injury with periosteal stripping and requirement of a flap for
coverage
Answer: D
