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Nursing Pathophysiology Practice Questions

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Prepare for NSG 3280 Exam 1 at Galen College of Nursing with this 2026 Pathophysiology for Nurses I study guide. Featuring practice questions, answers, and detailed rationales, this resource supports review of cellular injury, disease processes, inflammation, immune responses, genetic disorders, and the physiological changes associated with common health conditions. Strengthen your understanding of pathophysiological concepts, review important nursing principles, and identify areas requiring additional study before your examination. Use this resource alongside your course materials and instructor guidance. This is an independent study resource and is not an official Galen College examination document.

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COMD 674 Simucase Kelly (SLP) Intervention
Transcript Assessment Results Latest 2026 –
Questions with Correct Answers & Detailed
Rationales | Stuvia Study Guide PDF



Section 1: Assessment Interpretation & Case History (Questions 1–40)

1. Kelly is a 7-year-old who has been having difficulty learning to read. She is in the
second grade at a private school. Her mother is seeking additional information and is
requesting a comprehensive speech and language evaluation at your private
practice. What is the primary reason for referral?

A. Kelly has a fluency disorder.
B. Kelly is having difficulty learning to read.
C. Kelly has a voice disorder.
D. Kelly has a hearing loss.

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary reason for referral is Kelly's difficulty learning to read. She is in the
second grade and her mother is seeking a comprehensive speech and language evaluation.
The referral was made by her pediatrician due to difficulties with learning how to read .

2. Kelly is 7 years old. At what age does a child typically have an MLU of
approximately 4.0–5.0 morphemes?

,A. 2 years
B. 3 years
C. 4 years
D. 5 years

Correct Answer: D
Rationale: By age 5, a child typically has an MLU of approximately 4.0–5.0 morphemes.
Kelly's MLU of 3.2 morphemes at age 4;6 falls slightly below age expectations, which is a
low average range that warrants continued monitoring .

3. Kelly's language sample reveals an MLU of 3.2 morphemes at age 4;6. Which
interpretation is most accurate?

A. Kelly's language development is significantly delayed.
B. Kelly's MLU falls within the low average range and warrants continued monitoring.
C. Kelly's language is age-appropriate and no further evaluation is needed.
D. Kelly's expressive language is superior to same-age peers.

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: At 4;6, expected MLU ranges from approximately 3.5 to 5.0 morphemes, so 3.2
falls slightly below age expectations but not severely delayed. Low average suggests mild
concern rather than significant impairment. Borderline scores warrant monitoring and
targeted intervention rather than dismissal or over-pathologizing .

4. Which assessment tool would provide the most valid measure of Kelly's language
sample to monitor progress in mean length of utterance (MLU)?

A. A standardized test of articulation
B. A spontaneous language sample of at least 50–100 utterances

,C. A parent report questionnaire
D. A reading fluency assessment

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A spontaneous language sample of at least 50–100 utterances provides the most
valid measure of MLU because it captures naturalistic language use. Standardized tests,
parent reports, and reading assessments do not directly measure MLU .

5. During the initial assessment, Kelly produces the word "sun" as [θʌn]. Which
phonological process is Kelly demonstrating?

A. Fronting
B. Stopping
C. Interdentalization of /s/
D. Cluster reduction

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Kelly is substituting the voiceless interdental fricative /θ/ for the alveolar fricative
/s/, which represents an interdentalization pattern. The transcription clearly shows /s/ → /θ/,
a common error pattern in children with speech sound disorders .

6. Kelly produces "play" as [pe]. Which phonological process is demonstrated?

A. Final consonant deletion
B. Cluster reduction
C. Stopping
D. Gliding

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Kelly is reducing the consonant cluster /pl/ to the single consonant /p/, which is

, the definition of cluster reduction. The liquid /l/ is omitted while the stop /p/ is retained,
following the typical pattern of cluster reduction where the less sonorant sound is preserved
.

7. During stimulability testing, Kelly is able to correctly produce /s/ in isolation when
given maximal cues but reverts to [θ] in spontaneous speech. Which clinical
implication is most appropriate?

A. Kelly is not a good candidate for speech therapy.
B. Kelly has apraxia of speech and needs motor-based intervention.
C. Kelly demonstrates stimulability, suggesting good prognosis for intervention targeting /s/.
D. Kelly's stimulability indicates the sound is developmentally appropriate and will resolve
without intervention.

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Stimulability—the ability to produce a sound correctly with support—is a strong
positive prognostic indicator for speech intervention. Children who can be stimulated for a
sound typically make faster progress in therapy than those who cannot .

8. Kelly's scores on a standardized language assessment reveal the following:
Receptive Language: 82; Expressive Language: 79; Core Language: 78. Which
interpretation is most accurate?

A. Kelly's scores are all within normal limits.
B. Kelly's scores fall below the average range and suggest a language disorder.
C. Kelly's scores are above average.
D. Kelly's scores indicate a speech sound disorder only.

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Standard scores below 85 (1 SD below the mean) are considered below

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