NGR 5172 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm Exam Review:
Latest 2026- 2027 Real Exam Prep Questions and correct
answers with rationales/ NGR 5172 Latest Midterm Exam/
Advanced Pharmacology Midterm exam prep (2026-2027)
1. An antibiotic described as having bacteriostatic action is capable of:
A. Inhibiting growth or reproduction of an organism
B. Directly killing the organism
C. Lysing the bacterial cell wall
D. Preventing toxin production only
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Bacteriostatic antibiotics inhibit the growth or reproduction of bacteria,
allowing the host's immune system to eliminate the organisms. Bactericidal agents
directly kill bacteria. The distinction is important because bacteriostatic agents
require an intact immune system for full effect.
2. When monitoring for a therapeutic effect of an antiepileptic drug, the drug
level should be obtained at the medication's:
A. Peak level
B. Trough level
C. Midpoint level
D. Random level
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Trough levels are drawn just before the next dose to assess whether the
drug concentration remains within the therapeutic range throughout the dosing
interval. This is the standard for monitoring most antiepileptic drugs.
3. Which of the following provides the best indication of the liver's excretion
function?
1
,A. AST
B. ALT
C. Bilirubin
D. Alkaline phosphatase
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Bilirubin reflects the liver's ability to conjugate and excrete bilirubin
into bile. Elevated bilirubin indicates impaired hepatic excretion function. AST and
ALT reflect hepatocellular injury, while alkaline phosphatase reflects cholestasis.
4. When checking a carbamazepine level in suspected toxicity, the test should
be obtained approximately __________ hours after the dose is taken.
A. 1-2
B. 3-4
C. 6-8
D. 12-14
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Carbamazepine peak levels occur approximately 6-8 hours after oral
administration due to slow and variable absorption. Levels drawn at this time best
correlate with toxicity.
5. All of the following changes in electrolytes can be seen with thiazide
diuretic use except:
A. K+ wasting
B. Na+ wasting
C. Ca+ wasting
D. Mg+ wasting
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Thiazide diuretics promote calcium reabsorption, which can lead to
hypercalcemia, not calcium wasting. They cause wasting of potassium, sodium,
and magnesium. This calcium-sparing effect is unique to thiazides compared to
loop diuretics.
2
, 6. An example of an antiepileptic drug with a wider therapeutic index is:
A. Phenytoin
B. Carbamazepine
C. Valproic acid
D. Topiramate and gabapentin
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Topiramate and gabapentin have wider therapeutic indices compared to
phenytoin, carbamazepine, and valproic acid, which require therapeutic drug
monitoring due to narrow margins between efficacy and toxicity.
7. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of the
macrolides?
A. Inhibition of bacterial protein biosynthesis
B. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
C. Inhibition of folate synthesis
D. Inhibition of DNA gyrase
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Macrolides bind to the 50S ribosomal subunit and inhibit bacterial
protein synthesis. They are effective against atypical pathogens including
Mycoplasma, Legionella, and Chlamydia.
8. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of
sulfonamides?
A. Inhibition of bacterial protein biosynthesis
B. Inhibiting folate synthesis
C. Disruption of cell wall synthesis
D. Inhibition of DNA replication
Correct Answer: B
3
, Rationale: Sulfonamides are structural analogs of para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA)
and competitively inhibit dihydropteroate synthase, blocking folate synthesis in
bacteria. This is bacteriostatic.
9. Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) is produced by the:
A. Thyroid gland
B. Hypothalamus
C. Anterior pituitary
D. Posterior pituitary
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: TSH is produced by the anterior pituitary in response to thyrotropin-
releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus. TSH stimulates the thyroid
gland to produce T3 and T4.
10.The mechanism of action of radioactive iodine in the treatment of Graves'
disease is to:
A. Block thyroid hormone synthesis
B. Destroy the overactive thyroid tissue
C. Inhibit TSH secretion
D. Block peripheral conversion of T4 to T3
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Radioactive iodine is taken up by overactive thyroid cells and emits beta
radiation that destroys the thyroid tissue, reducing hormone production. This often
results in permanent hypothyroidism requiring replacement therapy.
11.Which of the following is most accurate regarding the finding of a solitary
thyroid nodule?
A. A benign or malignant thyroid lesion will present in a similar manner
B. Malignant nodules are typically painful
C. Benign nodules are always smaller than malignant nodules
D. Malignant nodules are always hyperfunctioning
4
Latest 2026- 2027 Real Exam Prep Questions and correct
answers with rationales/ NGR 5172 Latest Midterm Exam/
Advanced Pharmacology Midterm exam prep (2026-2027)
1. An antibiotic described as having bacteriostatic action is capable of:
A. Inhibiting growth or reproduction of an organism
B. Directly killing the organism
C. Lysing the bacterial cell wall
D. Preventing toxin production only
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Bacteriostatic antibiotics inhibit the growth or reproduction of bacteria,
allowing the host's immune system to eliminate the organisms. Bactericidal agents
directly kill bacteria. The distinction is important because bacteriostatic agents
require an intact immune system for full effect.
2. When monitoring for a therapeutic effect of an antiepileptic drug, the drug
level should be obtained at the medication's:
A. Peak level
B. Trough level
C. Midpoint level
D. Random level
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Trough levels are drawn just before the next dose to assess whether the
drug concentration remains within the therapeutic range throughout the dosing
interval. This is the standard for monitoring most antiepileptic drugs.
3. Which of the following provides the best indication of the liver's excretion
function?
1
,A. AST
B. ALT
C. Bilirubin
D. Alkaline phosphatase
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Bilirubin reflects the liver's ability to conjugate and excrete bilirubin
into bile. Elevated bilirubin indicates impaired hepatic excretion function. AST and
ALT reflect hepatocellular injury, while alkaline phosphatase reflects cholestasis.
4. When checking a carbamazepine level in suspected toxicity, the test should
be obtained approximately __________ hours after the dose is taken.
A. 1-2
B. 3-4
C. 6-8
D. 12-14
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Carbamazepine peak levels occur approximately 6-8 hours after oral
administration due to slow and variable absorption. Levels drawn at this time best
correlate with toxicity.
5. All of the following changes in electrolytes can be seen with thiazide
diuretic use except:
A. K+ wasting
B. Na+ wasting
C. Ca+ wasting
D. Mg+ wasting
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Thiazide diuretics promote calcium reabsorption, which can lead to
hypercalcemia, not calcium wasting. They cause wasting of potassium, sodium,
and magnesium. This calcium-sparing effect is unique to thiazides compared to
loop diuretics.
2
, 6. An example of an antiepileptic drug with a wider therapeutic index is:
A. Phenytoin
B. Carbamazepine
C. Valproic acid
D. Topiramate and gabapentin
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Topiramate and gabapentin have wider therapeutic indices compared to
phenytoin, carbamazepine, and valproic acid, which require therapeutic drug
monitoring due to narrow margins between efficacy and toxicity.
7. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of the
macrolides?
A. Inhibition of bacterial protein biosynthesis
B. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
C. Inhibition of folate synthesis
D. Inhibition of DNA gyrase
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Macrolides bind to the 50S ribosomal subunit and inhibit bacterial
protein synthesis. They are effective against atypical pathogens including
Mycoplasma, Legionella, and Chlamydia.
8. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of
sulfonamides?
A. Inhibition of bacterial protein biosynthesis
B. Inhibiting folate synthesis
C. Disruption of cell wall synthesis
D. Inhibition of DNA replication
Correct Answer: B
3
, Rationale: Sulfonamides are structural analogs of para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA)
and competitively inhibit dihydropteroate synthase, blocking folate synthesis in
bacteria. This is bacteriostatic.
9. Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) is produced by the:
A. Thyroid gland
B. Hypothalamus
C. Anterior pituitary
D. Posterior pituitary
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: TSH is produced by the anterior pituitary in response to thyrotropin-
releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus. TSH stimulates the thyroid
gland to produce T3 and T4.
10.The mechanism of action of radioactive iodine in the treatment of Graves'
disease is to:
A. Block thyroid hormone synthesis
B. Destroy the overactive thyroid tissue
C. Inhibit TSH secretion
D. Block peripheral conversion of T4 to T3
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Radioactive iodine is taken up by overactive thyroid cells and emits beta
radiation that destroys the thyroid tissue, reducing hormone production. This often
results in permanent hypothyroidism requiring replacement therapy.
11.Which of the following is most accurate regarding the finding of a solitary
thyroid nodule?
A. A benign or malignant thyroid lesion will present in a similar manner
B. Malignant nodules are typically painful
C. Benign nodules are always smaller than malignant nodules
D. Malignant nodules are always hyperfunctioning
4
