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NGR 5172 Advanced Pharmacology Final exam review latest real exam prep questions and correct answers with rationales/ NGR 5172 Latest Final Exam/ Advanced Pharmacology Final exam prep ()

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NGR 5172 Advanced Pharmacology Final exam review latest real exam prep questions and correct answers with rationales/ NGR 5172 Latest Final Exam/ Advanced Pharmacology Final exam prep () NGR 5172 Advanced Pharmacology Final exam review latest real exam prep questions and correct answers with rationales/ NGR 5172 Latest Final Exam/ Advanced Pharmacology Final exam prep ()

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NGR 5172 Advanced Pharmacology Final exam review
latest 2026-2027 real exam prep questions and correct
answers with rationales/ NGR 5172 Latest Final Exam/
Advanced Pharmacology Final exam prep (2026-2027)




1: All of the following antimicrobials would be expected to exhibit in vitro activity
against beta-lactamase-producing Moraxella catarrhalis except:
A. Amoxicillin
B. Amoxicillin-clavulanate
C. Cefuroxime
D. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
-ANSWER- A
Rationale: Beta-lactamase-producing Moraxella catarrhalis is resistant to
amoxicillin alone because it produces beta-lactamase, which destroys the drug.
2: A 13-year-old boy presents with acute bacterial rhinosinusitis. He has a beta-
lactam allergy and had taken clarithromycin 2 months ago for a "bad cold." You
recommend treatment with:
A. Levofloxacin
B. Amoxicillin
C. Doxycycline
D. Clindamycin
-ANSWER- A
Rationale: Levofloxacin is recommended for acute bacterial rhinosinusitis in
patients with a beta-lactam allergy who have recently used a macrolide.
3: Risk factors for developing fluoroquinolone-associated tendinitis and tendon
rupture include all of the following except:
A. Recent use of a systemic beta-lactam antimicrobial
B. Age greater than 60 years
C. Concurrent use of corticosteroids
D. History of organ transplantation
-ANSWER- A

1

,Rationale: Recent use of a systemic beta-lactam antimicrobial is not a risk factor
for fluoroquinolone-associated tendinitis.
4: Which is the primary advantage of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI)
over heterocyclics in the management of depression?
A. SSRIs do not have negative cardiovascular effects
B. SSRIs have a faster onset of action
C. SSRIs are more effective
D. SSRIs have fewer drug interactions
-ANSWER- A
Rationale: SSRIs do not have the negative cardiovascular effects associated with
heterocyclic antidepressants.
5: In addition to treating depression, SSRIs are also effective in treating the
following except:
A. Neuropathic pain
B. Anxiety disorders
C. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
D. Panic disorder
-ANSWER- A
Rationale: SSRIs are effective in treating anxiety disorders, OCD, and panic
disorder but are not effective in treating neuropathic pain.
6: Citalopram (Celexa) should not be prescribed greater than ________ mg daily
due to potential prolongation of the QT interval.
A. 40
B. 20
C. 60
D. 80
-ANSWER- A
Rationale: Citalopram should not be prescribed greater than 40 mg daily due to
potential prolongation of the QT interval.
7: When using venlafaxine HCl (Effexor) at high doses, it is recommended to
monitor the patient for:
A. Hypertension
B. Hypotension
C. Bradycardia
D. Hypoglycemia

2

,-ANSWER- A
Rationale: Venlafaxine at high doses can cause hypertension and requires
monitoring.
8: When considering discontinuing SNRI therapy, the NP recognizes that the
medication should be titrated down over a period of at least:
A. 4 weeks
B. 1 week
C. 2 weeks
D. 8 weeks
-ANSWER- A
Rationale: SNRI therapy should be titrated down over a period of at least 4 weeks
to avoid discontinuation syndrome.
9: Which of the following statements is false regarding serotonin syndrome?
A. Serotonin syndrome can often lead to life-threatening seizures
B. Serotonin syndrome can be caused by drug interactions
C. Serotonin syndrome can present with altered mental status
D. Serotonin syndrome can cause autonomic instability
-ANSWER- A
Rationale: Serotonin syndrome can cause severe symptoms but does not often lead
to life-threatening seizures.
10: When selecting a SSRI to treat depression with concomitant anxiety and
insomnia, it is useful to select an agent with a:
A. Greater sedating properties
B. Greater activating properties
C. Shorter half-life
D. Longer half-life
-ANSWER- A
Rationale: An SSRI with greater sedating properties is useful for depression with
concomitant anxiety and insomnia.
11: While deciding among the classes of antidepressants, the NP knows that the
serotonin norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs) are primarily indicated for
those patients:
A. Unresponsive to SSRIs
B. With mild depression
C. With seasonal affective disorder

3

, D. With bipolar disorder
-ANSWER- A
Rationale: SNRIs are primarily indicated for patients unresponsive to SSRIs.
12: Anticholinergic action due to SSRI use is caused indirectly through:
A. Dopamine upregulation
B. Serotonin upregulation
C. Norepinephrine upregulation
D. GABA upregulation
-ANSWER- A
Rationale: Anticholinergic action due to SSRI use is caused indirectly through
dopamine upregulation.
13: A likely cause of depression is due to diminished activity of:
A. Both norepinephrine and serotonin
B. Only norepinephrine
C. Only serotonin
D. Only dopamine
-ANSWER- A
Rationale: A likely cause of depression is due to diminished activity of both
norepinephrine and serotonin.
14: The first choice of drug class for managing chronic anxiety is:
A. SSRI
B. Benzodiazepine
C. Tricyclic antidepressant
D. MAO inhibitor
-ANSWER- A
Rationale: SSRIs are the first choice of drug class for managing chronic anxiety.
15: Most pharmacologic agents act to increase levels of endogenous dopamine or
stimulate dopamine receptors. As a result, which of the following adverse effects
may be anticipated with most classes?
A. Orthostatic hypotension and palpitations
B. Hypertension and bradycardia
C. Hypotension and bradycardia
D. Hypertension and tachycardia
-ANSWER- A


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