NU 136
FINAL EXAM
Fundamentals of Nursing
Actual Questions w/Correct Answers
Galen College of Nursing
What you Will Get:
• 100 verified questions
• Correct answers with Rationales.
• Ideal for exam preparation and concept
reinforcement.
,Question 1
A patient experiencing chronic stress is at risk for which physiological response?
A. Elevated blood glucose levels
B. Decreased heart rate
C. Bradypnea
D. Hypotension
Correct Answer:
A. Elevated blood glucose levels
Rationale: Chronic stress activates the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis and
the sympathetic nervous system, triggering the release of cortisol and epinephrine.
These hormones stimulate glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis, raising blood glucose
to provide energy for the “fight or flight” response. Over time, this increases the risk of
insulin resistance and type 2 diabetes. Option B is incorrect because stress typically
causes tachycardia, not bradycardia. Option C is incorrect because stress increases
respiratory rate (tachypnea). Option D is incorrect because stress generally causes
hypertension via vasoconstriction and increased cardiac output.
Question 2
A patient is hyperventilating due to a panic attack. What is the nurse's priority
action?
A. Encourage slow, deep breathing
B. Apply a paper bag over the nose and mouth
C. Administer a sedative immediately
D. Have the patient breathe into an oxygen mask
Correct Answer:
A. Encourage slow, deep breathing
Rationale: Hyperventilation during a panic attack causes excessive exhalation of CO₂,
leading to respiratory alkalosis. The priority is to coach the patient to slow their
respiratory rate and use diaphragmatic breathing to restore normal CO₂ levels and pH.
Option B (paper bag rebreathing) is no longer recommended due to risk of hypoxia and
is contraindicated in patients with undiagnosed cardiac or pulmonary disease. Option C
is incorrect because pharmacological intervention is not the first-line response for acute
anxiety. Option D is unnecessary unless hypoxemia is present.
,Question 3
Which intervention is most effective for managing acute anxiety?
A. Providing reassurance and maintaining a calm presence
B. Leaving the patient alone to “calm down” in a quiet room
C. Immediately restraining the patient for safety
D. Asking the patient to explain in detail why they are anxious
Correct Answer:
A. Providing reassurance and maintaining a calm presence
Rationale: Acute anxiety creates a perceived threat to safety. The nurse’s calm,
nonjudgmental presence and simple reassurance meet the patient’s security needs and
help de-escalate the sympathetic response. Option B is unsafe because isolation can
increase feelings of abandonment. Option C violates the least-restrictive intervention
principle and can escalate fear. Option D is ineffective during peak anxiety because the
patient cannot cognitively process complex questioning; therapeutic communication
should be brief and supportive.
Question 4
A nurse is teaching a patient with chronic constipation about diet modifications.
Which statement indicates a need for further teaching?
A. “I will increase my intake of whole grains and fresh fruits.”
B. “I should avoid exercise if I feel bloated.”
C. “I will drink at least eight glasses of water each day.”
D. “I plan to eat prunes or figs to help with bowel regularity.”
Correct Answer:
B. “I should avoid exercise if I feel bloated.”
Rationale: Physical activity stimulates peristalsis via increased intra-abdominal
pressure and vagal tone; avoiding exercise will worsen constipation. The patient should
be taught to remain active even when mildly bloated. Options A, C, and D are all
evidence-based strategies for managing chronic constipation and indicate correct
understanding.
Question 5
A patient with diarrhea is at risk for which electrolyte imbalance?
A. Hypernatremia
B. Hypokalemia
, C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hypermagnesemia
Correct Answer:
B. Hypokalemia
Rationale: Large-volume diarrhea causes significant loss of potassium-rich intestinal
secretions. Hypokalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias, muscle
weakness, and ileus. The nurse should monitor ECG for flattened T waves, U waves,
and ST depression. Option A (hypernatremia) is less common because diarrheal fluid is
isotonic to slightly hypotonic; patients may actually develop hyponatremia if they replace
losses with free water only. Options C and D are incorrect because calcium and
magnesium are not primarily lost in diarrheal stool.
Question 6
A nurse is collecting a stool sample for occult blood testing. Which instruction is
correct?
A. “Avoid eating red meat for 48–72 hours before the test.”
B. “Take your iron supplements daily right up until the test.”
C. “You do not need to avoid any foods before this test.”
D. “Collect the sample during your menstrual period if convenient.”
Correct Answer:
A. “Avoid eating red meat for 48–72 hours before the test.”
Rationale: The guaiac-based fecal occult blood test (gFOBT) detects the peroxidase-
like activity of heme. Red meat, raw vegetables with peroxidase activity (e.g., turnips,
broccoli), and certain medications (NSAIDs, vitamin C in high doses) can cause false-
positive or false-negative results. Option B is incorrect because iron supplements can
cause a false-positive. Option C is incorrect because dietary restrictions are necessary
for accurate gFOBT. Option D is incorrect because menstrual blood can contaminate
the sample and produce a false-positive.
Question 7
A patient with chronic pain prefers nonpharmacological interventions. Which
therapy is most appropriate?
A. Acupuncture
B. Placebo therapy
FINAL EXAM
Fundamentals of Nursing
Actual Questions w/Correct Answers
Galen College of Nursing
What you Will Get:
• 100 verified questions
• Correct answers with Rationales.
• Ideal for exam preparation and concept
reinforcement.
,Question 1
A patient experiencing chronic stress is at risk for which physiological response?
A. Elevated blood glucose levels
B. Decreased heart rate
C. Bradypnea
D. Hypotension
Correct Answer:
A. Elevated blood glucose levels
Rationale: Chronic stress activates the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis and
the sympathetic nervous system, triggering the release of cortisol and epinephrine.
These hormones stimulate glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis, raising blood glucose
to provide energy for the “fight or flight” response. Over time, this increases the risk of
insulin resistance and type 2 diabetes. Option B is incorrect because stress typically
causes tachycardia, not bradycardia. Option C is incorrect because stress increases
respiratory rate (tachypnea). Option D is incorrect because stress generally causes
hypertension via vasoconstriction and increased cardiac output.
Question 2
A patient is hyperventilating due to a panic attack. What is the nurse's priority
action?
A. Encourage slow, deep breathing
B. Apply a paper bag over the nose and mouth
C. Administer a sedative immediately
D. Have the patient breathe into an oxygen mask
Correct Answer:
A. Encourage slow, deep breathing
Rationale: Hyperventilation during a panic attack causes excessive exhalation of CO₂,
leading to respiratory alkalosis. The priority is to coach the patient to slow their
respiratory rate and use diaphragmatic breathing to restore normal CO₂ levels and pH.
Option B (paper bag rebreathing) is no longer recommended due to risk of hypoxia and
is contraindicated in patients with undiagnosed cardiac or pulmonary disease. Option C
is incorrect because pharmacological intervention is not the first-line response for acute
anxiety. Option D is unnecessary unless hypoxemia is present.
,Question 3
Which intervention is most effective for managing acute anxiety?
A. Providing reassurance and maintaining a calm presence
B. Leaving the patient alone to “calm down” in a quiet room
C. Immediately restraining the patient for safety
D. Asking the patient to explain in detail why they are anxious
Correct Answer:
A. Providing reassurance and maintaining a calm presence
Rationale: Acute anxiety creates a perceived threat to safety. The nurse’s calm,
nonjudgmental presence and simple reassurance meet the patient’s security needs and
help de-escalate the sympathetic response. Option B is unsafe because isolation can
increase feelings of abandonment. Option C violates the least-restrictive intervention
principle and can escalate fear. Option D is ineffective during peak anxiety because the
patient cannot cognitively process complex questioning; therapeutic communication
should be brief and supportive.
Question 4
A nurse is teaching a patient with chronic constipation about diet modifications.
Which statement indicates a need for further teaching?
A. “I will increase my intake of whole grains and fresh fruits.”
B. “I should avoid exercise if I feel bloated.”
C. “I will drink at least eight glasses of water each day.”
D. “I plan to eat prunes or figs to help with bowel regularity.”
Correct Answer:
B. “I should avoid exercise if I feel bloated.”
Rationale: Physical activity stimulates peristalsis via increased intra-abdominal
pressure and vagal tone; avoiding exercise will worsen constipation. The patient should
be taught to remain active even when mildly bloated. Options A, C, and D are all
evidence-based strategies for managing chronic constipation and indicate correct
understanding.
Question 5
A patient with diarrhea is at risk for which electrolyte imbalance?
A. Hypernatremia
B. Hypokalemia
, C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hypermagnesemia
Correct Answer:
B. Hypokalemia
Rationale: Large-volume diarrhea causes significant loss of potassium-rich intestinal
secretions. Hypokalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias, muscle
weakness, and ileus. The nurse should monitor ECG for flattened T waves, U waves,
and ST depression. Option A (hypernatremia) is less common because diarrheal fluid is
isotonic to slightly hypotonic; patients may actually develop hyponatremia if they replace
losses with free water only. Options C and D are incorrect because calcium and
magnesium are not primarily lost in diarrheal stool.
Question 6
A nurse is collecting a stool sample for occult blood testing. Which instruction is
correct?
A. “Avoid eating red meat for 48–72 hours before the test.”
B. “Take your iron supplements daily right up until the test.”
C. “You do not need to avoid any foods before this test.”
D. “Collect the sample during your menstrual period if convenient.”
Correct Answer:
A. “Avoid eating red meat for 48–72 hours before the test.”
Rationale: The guaiac-based fecal occult blood test (gFOBT) detects the peroxidase-
like activity of heme. Red meat, raw vegetables with peroxidase activity (e.g., turnips,
broccoli), and certain medications (NSAIDs, vitamin C in high doses) can cause false-
positive or false-negative results. Option B is incorrect because iron supplements can
cause a false-positive. Option C is incorrect because dietary restrictions are necessary
for accurate gFOBT. Option D is incorrect because menstrual blood can contaminate
the sample and produce a false-positive.
Question 7
A patient with chronic pain prefers nonpharmacological interventions. Which
therapy is most appropriate?
A. Acupuncture
B. Placebo therapy
