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MED SURG 201
Medical-Surgical Nursing
MED SURG 201 — Final Exam
Medical-Surgical Nursing
INSTITUTION Nursing Program | School of Nursing
PROGRAM Medical-Surgical Nursing
EXAM TITLE MED SURG 201 Medical-Surgical Nursing Final Examination 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
COURSE TITLE Medical-Surgical Nursing
COURSE CODE MED SURG 201
ACADEMIC YEAR 2026/2027
TOTAL QUESTIONS 150 Questions
Prepared by
© BestSellerStuvia
Academic Year 2026/2027
MED SURG 201 | 2026/2027
ACTUAL QUESTIONS
Domain 1: Perioperative Nursing Care
Question 1. Which medication is the specific antidote for malignant hyperthermia?
A. Naloxone
B. Dantrolene
C. Flumazenil
D. Protamine sulfate
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Dantrolene is the specific muscle relaxant used to treat malignant hyperthermia by inhibiting calcium
release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
Question 2. Who is responsible for obtaining informed consent before surgery?
A. The circulating nurse
B. The anesthesiologist only
C. The surgeon
D. The preoperative nurse
Correct Answer: C
© BestSellerStuvia | | MED SURG 201 | Academic Year 2026/2027
, © BestSellerStuvia |
Rationale: The surgeon is legally responsible for explaining the procedure, risks, benefits, and alternatives and for
obtaining the patient's informed consent.
Question 3. What is the priority nursing action when a postoperative patient develops a
temperature of 104°F (40°C) and muscle rigidity in the recovery area?
A. Administer acetaminophen
B. Notify the surgeon and prepare dantrolene
C. Apply cooling blankets only
D. Encourage deep breathing
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: These signs suggest malignant hyperthermia; immediate notification and preparation of dantrolene are
required.
Question 4. Which postoperative complication is characterized by absent bowel sounds,
abdominal distention, and failure to pass flatus?
A. Wound dehiscence
B. Urinary retention
C. Atelectasis
D. Paralytic ileus
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Paralytic ileus presents with absent bowel sounds, distention, and lack of flatus due to temporary loss of
peristalsis after surgery.
Question 5. What is the most effective nursing intervention to prevent postoperative
atelectasis?
A. Encouraging coughing, deep breathing, and early ambulation
B. Maintaining bed rest
C. Restricting oral fluids
D. Administering opioids around the clock
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Deep breathing, coughing, incentive spirometry, and early mobilization expand alveoli and prevent
atelectasis.
Question 6. Which finding indicates a possible wound dehiscence in a postoperative patient?
A. Serous drainage on the dressing
B. Sudden feeling of the wound giving way with increased drainage
C. Mild erythema around the incision
D. Temperature of 99.2°F
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Patients often report a sudden sensation that the wound has opened, accompanied by increased
serosanguineous drainage.
Question 7. What is the priority assessment for a patient returning from surgery with a patient-
controlled analgesia (PCA) pump?
A. Respiratory rate and sedation level
B. Bowel sounds
C. Urine output only
D. Surgical dressing dryness
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Opioids can cause respiratory depression; frequent assessment of respiratory rate and level of consciousness
is essential.
© BestSellerStuvia | | MED SURG 201 | Academic Year 2026/2027
, © BestSellerStuvia |
Question 8. Which action should the nurse take first when a postoperative patient reports calf
pain and swelling?
A. Massage the calf
B. Apply heat to the area
C. Elevate the leg and notify the provider of possible deep-vein thrombosis
D. Encourage vigorous ambulation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Calf pain and swelling raise concern for DVT; elevation and prompt notification are required while avoiding
massage that could dislodge a clot.
Question 9. What is the correct sequence for donning sterile gloves using the open method?
A. Dominant hand first, then nondominant hand
B. Either hand first is acceptable
C. Both hands simultaneously
D. Nondominant hand first, then dominant hand
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The nondominant hand is gloved first so that the dominant hand can more easily adjust the second glove
without contamination.
Question 10. Which laboratory value is most important to review before surgery for a patient
taking warfarin?
A. International normalized ratio (INR)
B. Hemoglobin
C. Serum potassium
D. Blood glucose
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The INR reflects the anticoagulant effect of warfarin and must be within an acceptable range before invasive
procedures.
Question 11. What is the primary purpose of preoperative teaching about incentive spirometry?
A. To reduce postoperative pain
B. To prevent atelectasis and promote lung expansion
C. To prevent wound infection
D. To improve appetite
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Incentive spirometry encourages sustained maximal inspiration, re-expanding alveoli and preventing
atelectasis.
Question 12. Which sign indicates a possible pulmonary embolism in a postoperative patient?
A. Gradual onset of mild dyspnea
B. Productive cough with yellow sputum
C. Sudden dyspnea, chest pain, and tachycardia
D. Low-grade fever only
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Acute onset of dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, and tachycardia are classic signs of pulmonary embolism.
Question 13. What is the priority nursing action for a patient who develops evisceration of an
abdominal wound?
A. Push the organs back into the abdomen
B. Apply a dry sterile dressing
C. Have the patient sit upright
D. Cover the organs with sterile saline-moistened gauze and notify the surgeon immediately
© BestSellerStuvia | | MED SURG 201 | Academic Year 2026/2027
, © BestSellerStuvia |
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Exposed organs must be kept moist with sterile saline dressings while the surgeon is notified for emergency
return to the operating room.
Question 14. Which preoperative medication is commonly given to reduce oral and respiratory
secretions?
A. Atropine or glycopyrrolate
B. Metoclopramide
C. Ondansetron
D. Midazolam
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Anticholinergic agents such as atropine or glycopyrrolate decrease secretions and reduce the risk of
aspiration.
Question 15. What is the most reliable indicator of adequate fluid resuscitation in a
postoperative patient?
A. Blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg
B. Urine output of at least 0.5 mL/kg/hr
C. Heart rate of 120 bpm
D. Capillary refill of 4 seconds
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Adequate urine output reflects sufficient renal perfusion and is a key indicator of volume status.
Question 16. Which nursing action is essential when a patient is receiving a continuous
epidural infusion of local anesthetic and opioid?
A. Monitor for respiratory depression, hypotension, and sensory/motor block
B. Encourage the patient to ambulate unassisted
C. Discontinue the infusion every 2 hours
D. Apply heat packs to the insertion site
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Epidural opioids and local anesthetics can cause respiratory depression, hypotension, and varying degrees
of sensory or motor blockade.
Question 17. What is the priority intervention for a patient who develops stridor immediately
after extubation?
A. Encourage coughing
B. Offer oral fluids
C. Place the patient in the Trendelenburg position
D. Notify the provider and prepare for possible re-intubation or airway support
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Stridor indicates upper-airway obstruction and requires immediate airway assessment and preparation for
advanced airway management.
Question 18. Which finding suggests a possible transfusion reaction during the administration
of packed red blood cells?
A. Fever, chills, back pain, or urticaria
B. Gradual increase in blood pressure
C. Improved oxygen saturation
D. Decreased heart rate
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Fever, chills, back or chest pain, and urticaria are classic signs of an acute transfusion reaction and require
immediate cessation of the transfusion.
© BestSellerStuvia | | MED SURG 201 | Academic Year 2026/2027
MED SURG 201
Medical-Surgical Nursing
MED SURG 201 — Final Exam
Medical-Surgical Nursing
INSTITUTION Nursing Program | School of Nursing
PROGRAM Medical-Surgical Nursing
EXAM TITLE MED SURG 201 Medical-Surgical Nursing Final Examination 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
COURSE TITLE Medical-Surgical Nursing
COURSE CODE MED SURG 201
ACADEMIC YEAR 2026/2027
TOTAL QUESTIONS 150 Questions
Prepared by
© BestSellerStuvia
Academic Year 2026/2027
MED SURG 201 | 2026/2027
ACTUAL QUESTIONS
Domain 1: Perioperative Nursing Care
Question 1. Which medication is the specific antidote for malignant hyperthermia?
A. Naloxone
B. Dantrolene
C. Flumazenil
D. Protamine sulfate
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Dantrolene is the specific muscle relaxant used to treat malignant hyperthermia by inhibiting calcium
release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
Question 2. Who is responsible for obtaining informed consent before surgery?
A. The circulating nurse
B. The anesthesiologist only
C. The surgeon
D. The preoperative nurse
Correct Answer: C
© BestSellerStuvia | | MED SURG 201 | Academic Year 2026/2027
, © BestSellerStuvia |
Rationale: The surgeon is legally responsible for explaining the procedure, risks, benefits, and alternatives and for
obtaining the patient's informed consent.
Question 3. What is the priority nursing action when a postoperative patient develops a
temperature of 104°F (40°C) and muscle rigidity in the recovery area?
A. Administer acetaminophen
B. Notify the surgeon and prepare dantrolene
C. Apply cooling blankets only
D. Encourage deep breathing
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: These signs suggest malignant hyperthermia; immediate notification and preparation of dantrolene are
required.
Question 4. Which postoperative complication is characterized by absent bowel sounds,
abdominal distention, and failure to pass flatus?
A. Wound dehiscence
B. Urinary retention
C. Atelectasis
D. Paralytic ileus
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Paralytic ileus presents with absent bowel sounds, distention, and lack of flatus due to temporary loss of
peristalsis after surgery.
Question 5. What is the most effective nursing intervention to prevent postoperative
atelectasis?
A. Encouraging coughing, deep breathing, and early ambulation
B. Maintaining bed rest
C. Restricting oral fluids
D. Administering opioids around the clock
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Deep breathing, coughing, incentive spirometry, and early mobilization expand alveoli and prevent
atelectasis.
Question 6. Which finding indicates a possible wound dehiscence in a postoperative patient?
A. Serous drainage on the dressing
B. Sudden feeling of the wound giving way with increased drainage
C. Mild erythema around the incision
D. Temperature of 99.2°F
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Patients often report a sudden sensation that the wound has opened, accompanied by increased
serosanguineous drainage.
Question 7. What is the priority assessment for a patient returning from surgery with a patient-
controlled analgesia (PCA) pump?
A. Respiratory rate and sedation level
B. Bowel sounds
C. Urine output only
D. Surgical dressing dryness
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Opioids can cause respiratory depression; frequent assessment of respiratory rate and level of consciousness
is essential.
© BestSellerStuvia | | MED SURG 201 | Academic Year 2026/2027
, © BestSellerStuvia |
Question 8. Which action should the nurse take first when a postoperative patient reports calf
pain and swelling?
A. Massage the calf
B. Apply heat to the area
C. Elevate the leg and notify the provider of possible deep-vein thrombosis
D. Encourage vigorous ambulation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Calf pain and swelling raise concern for DVT; elevation and prompt notification are required while avoiding
massage that could dislodge a clot.
Question 9. What is the correct sequence for donning sterile gloves using the open method?
A. Dominant hand first, then nondominant hand
B. Either hand first is acceptable
C. Both hands simultaneously
D. Nondominant hand first, then dominant hand
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The nondominant hand is gloved first so that the dominant hand can more easily adjust the second glove
without contamination.
Question 10. Which laboratory value is most important to review before surgery for a patient
taking warfarin?
A. International normalized ratio (INR)
B. Hemoglobin
C. Serum potassium
D. Blood glucose
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The INR reflects the anticoagulant effect of warfarin and must be within an acceptable range before invasive
procedures.
Question 11. What is the primary purpose of preoperative teaching about incentive spirometry?
A. To reduce postoperative pain
B. To prevent atelectasis and promote lung expansion
C. To prevent wound infection
D. To improve appetite
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Incentive spirometry encourages sustained maximal inspiration, re-expanding alveoli and preventing
atelectasis.
Question 12. Which sign indicates a possible pulmonary embolism in a postoperative patient?
A. Gradual onset of mild dyspnea
B. Productive cough with yellow sputum
C. Sudden dyspnea, chest pain, and tachycardia
D. Low-grade fever only
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Acute onset of dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, and tachycardia are classic signs of pulmonary embolism.
Question 13. What is the priority nursing action for a patient who develops evisceration of an
abdominal wound?
A. Push the organs back into the abdomen
B. Apply a dry sterile dressing
C. Have the patient sit upright
D. Cover the organs with sterile saline-moistened gauze and notify the surgeon immediately
© BestSellerStuvia | | MED SURG 201 | Academic Year 2026/2027
, © BestSellerStuvia |
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Exposed organs must be kept moist with sterile saline dressings while the surgeon is notified for emergency
return to the operating room.
Question 14. Which preoperative medication is commonly given to reduce oral and respiratory
secretions?
A. Atropine or glycopyrrolate
B. Metoclopramide
C. Ondansetron
D. Midazolam
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Anticholinergic agents such as atropine or glycopyrrolate decrease secretions and reduce the risk of
aspiration.
Question 15. What is the most reliable indicator of adequate fluid resuscitation in a
postoperative patient?
A. Blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg
B. Urine output of at least 0.5 mL/kg/hr
C. Heart rate of 120 bpm
D. Capillary refill of 4 seconds
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Adequate urine output reflects sufficient renal perfusion and is a key indicator of volume status.
Question 16. Which nursing action is essential when a patient is receiving a continuous
epidural infusion of local anesthetic and opioid?
A. Monitor for respiratory depression, hypotension, and sensory/motor block
B. Encourage the patient to ambulate unassisted
C. Discontinue the infusion every 2 hours
D. Apply heat packs to the insertion site
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Epidural opioids and local anesthetics can cause respiratory depression, hypotension, and varying degrees
of sensory or motor blockade.
Question 17. What is the priority intervention for a patient who develops stridor immediately
after extubation?
A. Encourage coughing
B. Offer oral fluids
C. Place the patient in the Trendelenburg position
D. Notify the provider and prepare for possible re-intubation or airway support
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Stridor indicates upper-airway obstruction and requires immediate airway assessment and preparation for
advanced airway management.
Question 18. Which finding suggests a possible transfusion reaction during the administration
of packed red blood cells?
A. Fever, chills, back pain, or urticaria
B. Gradual increase in blood pressure
C. Improved oxygen saturation
D. Decreased heart rate
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Fever, chills, back or chest pain, and urticaria are classic signs of an acute transfusion reaction and require
immediate cessation of the transfusion.
© BestSellerStuvia | | MED SURG 201 | Academic Year 2026/2027
