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ATI Maternal Newborn Comprehensive Predictor 2026/2027 | ACTUAL-Style Practice Questions & Answers, ATI RN Comprehensive Exam Prep, Maternal-Newborn Nursing Review, Pregnancy Complications, Labor and Delivery, Postpartum Care, Newborn Assessment, and Deta

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ATI Maternal Newborn Comprehensive Predictor 2026/2027 is an exam-preparation resource for nursing students reviewing maternal-newborn nursing concepts and comprehensive RN nursing content through ACTUAL-style practice questions and answers, detailed rationales, and focused revision exercises. Review prenatal care, high-risk pregnancy, labor and delivery, fetal monitoring, postpartum complications, newborn assessment, neonatal care, pharmacology, patient safety, clinical judgment, and evidence-based nursing interventions. The material is designed to strengthen content recall, improve clinical reasoning, and support preparation for ATI-style assessments and NCLEX readiness. Important: ATI’s RN Comprehensive Predictor is a broad assessment covering multiple nursing content areas, while ATI Maternal Newborn is a separate content-specific assessment; this resource should not imply that maternal-newborn content alone represents the entire Comprehensive Predictor. ATI +2 This independently prepared study resource is not an official ATI publication and does not contain verified or confidential live exam questions. More exam prep materials available — follow profile

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ATI Maternal Newborn Comprehensive Predictor
2026/2027 | ACTUAL-Style Practice Questions &
Answers, ATI RN Comprehensive Exam Prep,
Maternal-Newborn Nursing Review, Pregnancy
Complications, Labor and Delivery, Postpartum
Care, Newborn Assessment, and Detailed Rationales
Question 1: A nurse is caring for a client at 32 weeks of gestation who is
experiencing preterm labor. Which medication should the nurse plan to
administer to accelerate fetal lung maturity?
A. Misoprostol
B. Betamethasone
C. Poractant alfa
D. Methylergonovine
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Betamethasone
Rationale: Betamethasone is an antenatal corticosteroid administered
when preterm birth is anticipated to accelerate fetal lung maturation and
reduce complications associated with prematurity, including respiratory
distress syndrome, intraventricular hemorrhage, and neonatal morbidity.
Misoprostol is used for cervical ripening and induction, poractant alfa is a
surfactant given to the newborn after birth, and methylergonovine is a
uterotonic used for postpartum hemorrhage.
Question 2: A nurse is caring for a client who believes she may be
pregnant. Which finding should the nurse identify as a positive sign of
pregnancy?
A. Palpable fetal movement
B. Amenorrhea
C. Chadwick's sign
D. Positive pregnancy test
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Palpable fetal movement
Rationale: Palpable fetal movement by an examiner is a positive sign of
pregnancy because it is direct evidence of a fetus. Amenorrhea,
Chadwick's sign, and a positive pregnancy test are presumptive or
probable signs rather than definitive positive signs.

,Question 3: A nurse is assessing a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation
and has a suspected pelvic fracture due to blunt abdominal trauma.
Which finding should the nurse monitor closely?
A. Uterine contractions
B. Bradycardia
C. Bradypnea
D. Hypertension
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Uterine contractions
Rationale: Significant abdominal trauma during pregnancy can stimulate
uterine activity and may precipitate preterm labor or placental
complications. The nurse should closely monitor maternal and fetal status,
including uterine contractions and fetal heart rate.
Question 4: A nurse is caring for a client at 12 weeks of gestation who
reports nausea and vomiting. Which intervention should the nurse
recommend?
A. Eat small, frequent meals throughout the day
B. Increase intake of spicy foods
C. Consume large meals at bedtime
D. Avoid all fluids until symptoms subside
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Eat small, frequent meals throughout the day
Rationale: Nausea and vomiting in early pregnancy is best managed by
eating small, frequent meals to prevent the stomach from becoming
empty, which exacerbates symptoms. Spicy foods may worsen nausea,
large bedtime meals increase discomfort due to slowed digestion, and fluid
avoidance risks dehydration.
Question 5: A nurse is assessing a newborn immediately after birth.
Which finding should the nurse report to the provider?
A. Heart rate of 130/min
B. Respiratory rate of 50/min
C. Central cyanosis
D. Acrocyanosis
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Central cyanosis

,Rationale: Central cyanosis involving the trunk and mucous membranes
indicates inadequate oxygenation and requires immediate intervention.
Acrocyanosis (bluish extremities) is a normal finding in the first hours after
birth. A heart rate of 130/min and respiratory rate of 50/min are within
normal newborn ranges.
Question 6: A nurse is preparing to administer Rh immune globulin to a
client who is Rh-negative and gave birth to an Rh-positive newborn.
Which instruction should the nurse include?
A. Administer the medication within 72 hours of birth
B. Administer the medication only if the newborn is Rh-negative
C. Withhold the medication if the client had a previous miscarriage
D. Administer the medication intramuscularly into the deltoid only
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Administer the medication within 72 hours of
birth
Rationale: Rh immune globulin must be administered within 72 hours of
birth to prevent sensitization in an Rh-negative mother who delivered an
Rh-positive newborn. It is not withheld based on previous miscarriage, and
the newborn's Rh status determines the need. The medication is typically
given in the deltoid or gluteal muscle, but timing is the priority.
Question 7: A nurse is assessing a newborn at 1 minute after birth using
the Apgar score. The newborn has a heart rate of 110/min, slow
irregular respirations, some flexion of extremities, grimace with
stimulation, and a pink body with blue extremities. What is the Apgar
score?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
CORRECT ANSWER: B. 6
Rationale: The Apgar score is calculated as follows: Heart rate 110/min = 2
points; Slow irregular respirations = 1 point; Some flexion of extremities = 1
point; Grimace with stimulation = 1 point; Pink body with blue extremities
(acrocyanosis) = 1 point. Total = 2 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 = 6.

, Question 8: A client with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate.
Which finding indicates magnesium toxicity?
A. Respiratory rate of 10/min
B. Urine output of 50 mL/hr
C. Patellar reflexes 2+
D. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Respiratory rate of 10/min
Rationale: Respiratory depression is a sign of magnesium toxicity. Loss of
deep tendon reflexes and decreased urine output are additional warning
signs. A respiratory rate of 10/min is below the normal range and indicates
toxicity requiring immediate intervention.
Question 9: Which medication should the nurse anticipate
administering for magnesium sulfate toxicity?
A. Naloxone
B. Calcium gluconate
C. Protamine sulfate
D. Vitamin K
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Calcium gluconate
Rationale: Calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity
and should be readily available when magnesium therapy is administered.
Naloxone reverses opioid effects, protamine sulfate reverses heparin, and
vitamin K reverses warfarin.
Question 10: A pregnant client asks how to reduce the risk of neural
tube defects. Which recommendation is most appropriate?
A. Increase folic acid intake
B. Avoid all physical activity
C. Increase sodium intake
D. Restrict protein
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Increase folic acid intake
Rationale: Adequate folic acid intake before conception and during early
pregnancy significantly reduces the risk of neural tube defects. Avoiding
physical activity, increasing sodium, or restricting protein does not prevent
neural tube defects.

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