CHAMBERLAIN UNIVERSITY
NR302 / NR-302 Health Assessment
Exam 2 - Complete Study Guide
NR302 Exam 2
Health Assessment Complete Guide
100 Questions with Verified Answers & Detailed Rationales
100% Correct - Latest Update
EXAM COVERAGE - 8 SYSTEMS:
1. Peripheral Vascular System & Lymphatics (Q1-14)
2. Abdomen - Assessment & Findings (Q15-30)
3. Musculoskeletal System (Q31-46)
4. Neurological System - CNs, Reflexes, Mental Status (Q47-64)
5. Male Genitourinary System (Q65-74)
6. Female Genitourinary System (Q75-84)
7. Anus, Rectum, & Prostate (Q85-92)
8. Head-to-Toe, Documentation & Clinical Reasoning (Q93-100)
Complete Guide with Questions and Verified Answers
Aligned with Chamberlain NR302 Exam 2 Learning Objectives | 2026/2027 Edition
Cognitive Levels: 30% Recall - 50% Application - 20% Analysis
, NR302 Exam 2 - Complete Study Guide
About this exam: This comprehensive study guide contains 100 multiple-choice questions covering all eight major
body systems assessed in Chamberlain University NR302 Health Assessment Exam 2. Each question is followed by
four options (A-D), one verified correct answer clearly marked, and a detailed rationale explaining both the correct
response and the clinical reasoning behind the incorrect distractors.
Cognitive level distribution: Approximately 30% of questions assess recall of normal/abnormal findings and
assessment techniques, 50% apply assessment techniques to clinical scenarios, and 20% require analysis of complex
findings to determine priorities. This distribution mirrors the cognitive complexity expected at the pre-licensure
baccalaureate nursing level.
How to use this guide: Read each question stem carefully, consider all four options, identify your selected answer,
then verify against the marked correct answer. Study the rationale thoroughly - the explanation distinguishes between
normal and abnormal findings, corrects common pitfalls (wrong assessment sequence, misidentified cranial nerves,
incorrect reflex grading), and reinforces clinical reasoning for prioritization questions.
Section Overview
# Section Title Topics Questions
1 Peripheral Vascular System and Lymphatics
Arteries, Veins, Pulses, Edema, & Lymph Nodes Q1 - Q14
2 Abdomen Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation, & Abdominal Organs
Q15 - Q30
3 Musculoskeletal System Joints, Muscles, Range of Motion, & Spine Q31 - Q46
4 Neurological System Mental Status, Cranial Nerves, Motor/Sensory Function, & Reflexes
Q47 - Q64
5 Male Genitourinary System External Genitalia, Prostate, & Hernias Q65 - Q74
6 Female Genitourinary System External Genitalia, Vagina, Cervix, Uterus, & Adnexa Q75 - Q84
7 Anus, Rectum, and Prostate Anal Canal, Rectum, & Prostate Examination Q85 - Q92
8 Head-to-Toe Assessment, Documentation,
Complete
and Clinical
Assessment,
Reasoning
Documentation, & Prioritization Q93 - Q100
NR302 Exam 2 - Health Assessment | Chamberlain University | 2026/2027 Edition Page 2
, Section 1: Peripheral Vascular System and Lymphatics Q1 - Q14
Arteries, Veins, Pulses, Edema, & Lymph Nodes
Q1. A 67-year-old male presents with cool, pale, hairless lower extremities and weak femoral pulses. The
nurse suspects arterial insufficiency. Which assessment technique should the nurse perform FIRST to
confirm peripheral arterial disease?
A. Perform Trendelenburg test to evaluate venous competency
B. Calculate the ankle-brachial index (ABI) by comparing ankle and brachial systolic pressures
[CORRECT]
C. Assess for pitting edema using a 1+ to 4+ scale
D. Palpate the epitrochlear lymph nodes for enlargement
Correct Answer: B. Calculate the ankle-brachial index (ABI) by comparing ankle and brachial systolic
pressures
Rationale: The ankle-brachial index (ABI) is the gold standard screening for peripheral arterial disease (PAD),
comparing ankle systolic pressure to brachial systolic pressure. An ABI <0.90 indicates PAD. Trendelenburg
tests venous competency, edema assessment evaluates venous insufficiency, and epitrochlear nodes assess
lymphatic pathology - none of which evaluate arterial disease. The patient's presentation (cool, pale, hairless
legs with weak pulses) is classic for arterial insufficiency, requiring ABI for objective confirmation.
Q2. When assessing a patient's peripheral pulses, the nurse documents the dorsalis pedis pulse as '2+/4+.'
What does this finding indicate?
A. Absent pulse requiring immediate intervention
B. Weak pulse suggesting arterial insufficiency
C. Normal pulse strength easily palpable [CORRECT]
D. Bounding pulse associated with aortic regurgitation
Correct Answer: C. Normal pulse strength easily palpable
Rationale: The standard pulse grading scale is 0 (absent), 1+ (weak/thread), 2+ (normal), 3+
(increased/bounding), and 4+ (bounding/full). A 2+/4+ pulse indicates a normal pulse that is easily palpable. A
1+ pulse would suggest arterial insufficiency, while 3+/4+ suggests increased stroke volume. Documenting 2+
reflects appropriate assessment of normal peripheral perfusion.
Q3. A 54-year-old female reports aching leg pain that worsens with standing and improves with
elevation. The nurse notes tortuous, dilated veins on her calves. Which assessment finding would the
nurse MOST likely document as consistent with varicose veins?
A. Absent posterior tibial pulses with cool extremities
B. Positive Homans' sign with calf tenderness
C. Negative Trendelenburg test demonstrating incompetent valves
D. Brownish pigmentation around the ankles with minimal edema [CORRECT]
NR302 Exam 2 - Health Assessment | Chamberlain University | 2026/2027 Edition Page 3
, Correct Answer: D. Brownish pigmentation around the ankles with minimal edema
Rationale: Chronic venous insufficiency from varicose veins causes venous stasis, leading to hemosiderin
deposition that produces brownish pigmentation around the ankles (stasis dermatitis). Varicose veins present as
tortuous, dilated superficial veins with aching relieved by elevation. Absent pulses indicate arterial disease,
Homans' sign is unreliable for DVT, and the Trendelenburg test would be POSITIVE (not negative) with
incompetent valves as blood fills the varicosities rapidly upon standing.
Q4. The nurse is assessing a patient for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which clinical manifestation is the
MOST reliable indicator of acute DVT and requires immediate notification of the healthcare provider?
A. Unilateral calf swelling with warmth, erythema, and tenderness [CORRECT]
B. Bilateral ankle edema worsening at end of day
C. Visible varicose veins with brown pigmentation
D. Diminished posterior tibial pulses bilaterally
Correct Answer: A. Unilateral calf swelling with warmth, erythema, and tenderness
Rationale: Unilateral calf swelling with warmth, erythema, and tenderness is the hallmark clinical presentation
of DVT and represents a medical emergency due to risk of pulmonary embolism. Bilateral ankle edema suggests
systemic causes (heart failure, venous insufficiency), varicose veins indicate chronic venous disease, and
diminished pulses suggest arterial insufficiency. The unilateral nature is critical - DVT produces asymmetric
findings unlike systemic conditions.
Q5. A nurse is palpating a patient's lymph nodes and notes that the nodes are fixed, hard, matted, and
nontender. How should the nurse interpret this finding?
A. Normal finding in healthy adults with prior infections
B. Indicates acute infection requiring antibiotics
C. Suggests malignant or metastatic disease requiring further evaluation [CORRECT]
D. Confirms localized inflammation from minor trauma
Correct Answer: C. Suggests malignant or metastatic disease requiring further evaluation
Rationale: Lymph nodes that are fixed, hard, matted, and nontender are highly suspicious for malignancy or
metastatic disease and warrant immediate further evaluation. Normal nodes are small (<1 cm), soft, mobile, and
nontender. Acute infection produces tender, enlarged, mobile nodes with overlying erythema. The fixed, hard,
matted quality indicates invasion of surrounding tissue - a red flag finding requiring urgent follow-up.
Q6. When assessing the lymphatic system, which sequence demonstrates the correct order for examining
the major lymph node chains?
A. Axillary → epitrochlear → inguinal → cervical
B. Cervical → axillary → epitrochlear → inguinal [CORRECT]
C. Inguinal → epitrochlear → axillary → cervical
D. Epitrochlear → cervical → inguinal → axillary
Correct Answer: B. Cervical → axillary → epitrochlear → inguinal
NR302 Exam 2 - Health Assessment | Chamberlain University | 2026/2027 Edition Page 4
NR302 / NR-302 Health Assessment
Exam 2 - Complete Study Guide
NR302 Exam 2
Health Assessment Complete Guide
100 Questions with Verified Answers & Detailed Rationales
100% Correct - Latest Update
EXAM COVERAGE - 8 SYSTEMS:
1. Peripheral Vascular System & Lymphatics (Q1-14)
2. Abdomen - Assessment & Findings (Q15-30)
3. Musculoskeletal System (Q31-46)
4. Neurological System - CNs, Reflexes, Mental Status (Q47-64)
5. Male Genitourinary System (Q65-74)
6. Female Genitourinary System (Q75-84)
7. Anus, Rectum, & Prostate (Q85-92)
8. Head-to-Toe, Documentation & Clinical Reasoning (Q93-100)
Complete Guide with Questions and Verified Answers
Aligned with Chamberlain NR302 Exam 2 Learning Objectives | 2026/2027 Edition
Cognitive Levels: 30% Recall - 50% Application - 20% Analysis
, NR302 Exam 2 - Complete Study Guide
About this exam: This comprehensive study guide contains 100 multiple-choice questions covering all eight major
body systems assessed in Chamberlain University NR302 Health Assessment Exam 2. Each question is followed by
four options (A-D), one verified correct answer clearly marked, and a detailed rationale explaining both the correct
response and the clinical reasoning behind the incorrect distractors.
Cognitive level distribution: Approximately 30% of questions assess recall of normal/abnormal findings and
assessment techniques, 50% apply assessment techniques to clinical scenarios, and 20% require analysis of complex
findings to determine priorities. This distribution mirrors the cognitive complexity expected at the pre-licensure
baccalaureate nursing level.
How to use this guide: Read each question stem carefully, consider all four options, identify your selected answer,
then verify against the marked correct answer. Study the rationale thoroughly - the explanation distinguishes between
normal and abnormal findings, corrects common pitfalls (wrong assessment sequence, misidentified cranial nerves,
incorrect reflex grading), and reinforces clinical reasoning for prioritization questions.
Section Overview
# Section Title Topics Questions
1 Peripheral Vascular System and Lymphatics
Arteries, Veins, Pulses, Edema, & Lymph Nodes Q1 - Q14
2 Abdomen Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation, & Abdominal Organs
Q15 - Q30
3 Musculoskeletal System Joints, Muscles, Range of Motion, & Spine Q31 - Q46
4 Neurological System Mental Status, Cranial Nerves, Motor/Sensory Function, & Reflexes
Q47 - Q64
5 Male Genitourinary System External Genitalia, Prostate, & Hernias Q65 - Q74
6 Female Genitourinary System External Genitalia, Vagina, Cervix, Uterus, & Adnexa Q75 - Q84
7 Anus, Rectum, and Prostate Anal Canal, Rectum, & Prostate Examination Q85 - Q92
8 Head-to-Toe Assessment, Documentation,
Complete
and Clinical
Assessment,
Reasoning
Documentation, & Prioritization Q93 - Q100
NR302 Exam 2 - Health Assessment | Chamberlain University | 2026/2027 Edition Page 2
, Section 1: Peripheral Vascular System and Lymphatics Q1 - Q14
Arteries, Veins, Pulses, Edema, & Lymph Nodes
Q1. A 67-year-old male presents with cool, pale, hairless lower extremities and weak femoral pulses. The
nurse suspects arterial insufficiency. Which assessment technique should the nurse perform FIRST to
confirm peripheral arterial disease?
A. Perform Trendelenburg test to evaluate venous competency
B. Calculate the ankle-brachial index (ABI) by comparing ankle and brachial systolic pressures
[CORRECT]
C. Assess for pitting edema using a 1+ to 4+ scale
D. Palpate the epitrochlear lymph nodes for enlargement
Correct Answer: B. Calculate the ankle-brachial index (ABI) by comparing ankle and brachial systolic
pressures
Rationale: The ankle-brachial index (ABI) is the gold standard screening for peripheral arterial disease (PAD),
comparing ankle systolic pressure to brachial systolic pressure. An ABI <0.90 indicates PAD. Trendelenburg
tests venous competency, edema assessment evaluates venous insufficiency, and epitrochlear nodes assess
lymphatic pathology - none of which evaluate arterial disease. The patient's presentation (cool, pale, hairless
legs with weak pulses) is classic for arterial insufficiency, requiring ABI for objective confirmation.
Q2. When assessing a patient's peripheral pulses, the nurse documents the dorsalis pedis pulse as '2+/4+.'
What does this finding indicate?
A. Absent pulse requiring immediate intervention
B. Weak pulse suggesting arterial insufficiency
C. Normal pulse strength easily palpable [CORRECT]
D. Bounding pulse associated with aortic regurgitation
Correct Answer: C. Normal pulse strength easily palpable
Rationale: The standard pulse grading scale is 0 (absent), 1+ (weak/thread), 2+ (normal), 3+
(increased/bounding), and 4+ (bounding/full). A 2+/4+ pulse indicates a normal pulse that is easily palpable. A
1+ pulse would suggest arterial insufficiency, while 3+/4+ suggests increased stroke volume. Documenting 2+
reflects appropriate assessment of normal peripheral perfusion.
Q3. A 54-year-old female reports aching leg pain that worsens with standing and improves with
elevation. The nurse notes tortuous, dilated veins on her calves. Which assessment finding would the
nurse MOST likely document as consistent with varicose veins?
A. Absent posterior tibial pulses with cool extremities
B. Positive Homans' sign with calf tenderness
C. Negative Trendelenburg test demonstrating incompetent valves
D. Brownish pigmentation around the ankles with minimal edema [CORRECT]
NR302 Exam 2 - Health Assessment | Chamberlain University | 2026/2027 Edition Page 3
, Correct Answer: D. Brownish pigmentation around the ankles with minimal edema
Rationale: Chronic venous insufficiency from varicose veins causes venous stasis, leading to hemosiderin
deposition that produces brownish pigmentation around the ankles (stasis dermatitis). Varicose veins present as
tortuous, dilated superficial veins with aching relieved by elevation. Absent pulses indicate arterial disease,
Homans' sign is unreliable for DVT, and the Trendelenburg test would be POSITIVE (not negative) with
incompetent valves as blood fills the varicosities rapidly upon standing.
Q4. The nurse is assessing a patient for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which clinical manifestation is the
MOST reliable indicator of acute DVT and requires immediate notification of the healthcare provider?
A. Unilateral calf swelling with warmth, erythema, and tenderness [CORRECT]
B. Bilateral ankle edema worsening at end of day
C. Visible varicose veins with brown pigmentation
D. Diminished posterior tibial pulses bilaterally
Correct Answer: A. Unilateral calf swelling with warmth, erythema, and tenderness
Rationale: Unilateral calf swelling with warmth, erythema, and tenderness is the hallmark clinical presentation
of DVT and represents a medical emergency due to risk of pulmonary embolism. Bilateral ankle edema suggests
systemic causes (heart failure, venous insufficiency), varicose veins indicate chronic venous disease, and
diminished pulses suggest arterial insufficiency. The unilateral nature is critical - DVT produces asymmetric
findings unlike systemic conditions.
Q5. A nurse is palpating a patient's lymph nodes and notes that the nodes are fixed, hard, matted, and
nontender. How should the nurse interpret this finding?
A. Normal finding in healthy adults with prior infections
B. Indicates acute infection requiring antibiotics
C. Suggests malignant or metastatic disease requiring further evaluation [CORRECT]
D. Confirms localized inflammation from minor trauma
Correct Answer: C. Suggests malignant or metastatic disease requiring further evaluation
Rationale: Lymph nodes that are fixed, hard, matted, and nontender are highly suspicious for malignancy or
metastatic disease and warrant immediate further evaluation. Normal nodes are small (<1 cm), soft, mobile, and
nontender. Acute infection produces tender, enlarged, mobile nodes with overlying erythema. The fixed, hard,
matted quality indicates invasion of surrounding tissue - a red flag finding requiring urgent follow-up.
Q6. When assessing the lymphatic system, which sequence demonstrates the correct order for examining
the major lymph node chains?
A. Axillary → epitrochlear → inguinal → cervical
B. Cervical → axillary → epitrochlear → inguinal [CORRECT]
C. Inguinal → epitrochlear → axillary → cervical
D. Epitrochlear → cervical → inguinal → axillary
Correct Answer: B. Cervical → axillary → epitrochlear → inguinal
NR302 Exam 2 - Health Assessment | Chamberlain University | 2026/2027 Edition Page 4
