Ati Rn Maternal Newborn Proctored Newest 2026/2027
Actual Exam Complete Questions And Correct Detailed
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Section 1: Antepartum Care & Assessment (Questions 1–25)
1. A nurse is caring for a client at 10 weeks gestation who reports nausea and vomiting. Which
of the following instructions should the nurse provide?
A. "Drink fluids with meals to help with digestion."
B. "Eat small, frequent meals throughout the day."
C. "Lie down immediately after eating."
D. "Increase your intake of spicy foods to stimulate appetite."
Rationale: Small, frequent meals help prevent nausea by keeping the stomach from
becoming empty or overly full. Fluids should be consumed between meals, not with meals.
Lying down after eating can worsen nausea. Spicy foods may irritate the stomach and worsen
nausea.
2. A nurse is calculating the estimated date of delivery (EDD) for a client whose last menstrual
period began on March 10. Using Naegele's rule, what is the EDD?
A. December 10
B. December 17
C. December 24
D. January 10
Rationale: Naegele's rule: Subtract 3 months from the first day of the LMP and add 7 days.
March 10 minus 3 months = December 10; December 10 + 7 days = December 17.
3. A nurse is assessing a client at 24 weeks gestation. Which of the following findings should
the nurse report to the provider?
A. Fundal height of 24 cm
B. Blood pressure 118/76 mm Hg
C. Fetal heart rate of 110/min
D. Hemoglobin 11.5 g/dL
, Rationale: A fetal heart rate of 110/min is at the lower limit of normal (normal 110–
160/min) but should be monitored closely. However, if consistently at 110, it should be
reported. Fundal height at 24 weeks should equal approximately 24 cm. BP 118/76 is normal.
Hemoglobin 11.5 g/dL is within normal limits for pregnancy (normal 11–16 g/dL).
4. A nurse is teaching a client about the purpose of the quad marker screen. Which of the
following conditions does this test detect? (SATA)
A. Neural tube defects
B. Down syndrome
C. Gestational diabetes
D. Trisomy 18
E. Placenta previa
Rationale: The quad marker screen (AFP, hCG, estriol, inhibin A) detects neural tube defects,
Down syndrome, and trisomy 18. It does not detect gestational diabetes or placenta previa.
5. A nurse is caring for a client in the first trimester who asks when she should expect to feel
fetal movement. The nurse should respond that quickening typically occurs at which of the
following times?
A. 8–10 weeks
B. 12–14 weeks
C. 16–20 weeks
D. 22–26 weeks
Rationale: Quickening, the first perception of fetal movement, typically occurs between 16
and 20 weeks gestation in primigravida clients and may occur slightly earlier in multigravida
clients.
6. A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client at 28 weeks gestation. Which of the
following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
A. Hemoglobin 10.5 g/dL
B. WBC 12,000/mm³
C. Platelets 250,000/mm³
D. Fasting glucose 85 mg/dL
, Rationale: Hemoglobin below 11 g/dL in the second trimester indicates anemia and should
be reported. WBC up to 15,000/mm³ is normal in pregnancy. Platelets 250,000/mm³ is normal.
Fasting glucose 85 mg/dL is normal.
7. A nurse is providing teaching to a client at 12 weeks gestation about nutrition. Which of the
following statements by the client indicates understanding?
A. "I should increase my folic acid intake to 600 mcg daily."
B. "I need to double my calorie intake during pregnancy."
C. "I should avoid all dairy products."
D. "I can continue my current exercise routine without modification."
Rationale: Folic acid 600 mcg daily is recommended during pregnancy to prevent neural
tube defects. Calorie needs increase by only 300–500 kcal/day in the second and third
trimesters. Dairy is an important source of calcium. Exercise should be modified as pregnancy
progresses.
8. A nurse is performing an initial prenatal assessment. Which of the following findings is a
positive sign of pregnancy?
A. Amenorrhea
B. Nausea and vomiting
C. Fetal heart tones auscultated by Doppler
D. Breast tenderness
Rationale: Positive signs of pregnancy are those that can only be caused by pregnancy: fetal
heart tones, fetal movement felt by examiner, and visualization of fetus. Amenorrhea, nausea,
and breast tenderness are presumptive signs.
9. A nurse is teaching a client about warning signs during pregnancy that require immediate
medical attention. Which of the following should the nurse include? (SATA)
A. Vaginal bleeding
B. Severe headache
C. Mild ankle edema
D. Blurred vision
E. Braxton Hicks contractions
, Rationale: Vaginal bleeding, severe headache, and blurred vision are warning signs of
complications such as placenta previa, preeclampsia, or abruption. Mild ankle edema and
Braxton Hicks contractions are common and expected.
10. A nurse is assessing a client at 36 weeks gestation who reports leaking fluid from the
vagina. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Perform a sterile speculum examination
B. Check the fetal heart rate
C. Obtain a urine specimen
D. Prepare the client for delivery
Rationale: The priority nursing action is to assess fetal well-being by checking the fetal heart
rate. This assesses for cord prolapse, which is an emergency. After confirming fetal well-being,
further testing (speculum exam, nitrazine test) can be performed.
11. A nurse is calculating the GTPAL for a client who has been pregnant 4 times, has 2 living
children, had 1 miscarriage at 10 weeks, and 1 preterm birth at 34 weeks. What is the correct
GTPAL?
A. G4 T1 P1 A1 L2
B. G4 T2 P0 A1 L2
C. G4 T1 P2 A1 L2
D. G4 T2 P1 A0 L2
Rationale: G = 4 (total pregnancies). T = 1 (term births at 37+ weeks — one living child born
at term). P = 1 (preterm birth at 34 weeks). A = 1 (miscarriage at 10 weeks). L = 2 (living
children).
12. A nurse is providing education about fetal development to a client at 20 weeks gestation.
The nurse should explain that which of the following structures is responsible for oxygen and
nutrient exchange?
A. Amnion
B. Chorion
C. Placenta
D. Umbilical cord
Actual Exam Complete Questions And Correct Detailed
Answers (Verified Answers) |Already Graded A ||Brand
New!! All Bundled Here!!!
Section 1: Antepartum Care & Assessment (Questions 1–25)
1. A nurse is caring for a client at 10 weeks gestation who reports nausea and vomiting. Which
of the following instructions should the nurse provide?
A. "Drink fluids with meals to help with digestion."
B. "Eat small, frequent meals throughout the day."
C. "Lie down immediately after eating."
D. "Increase your intake of spicy foods to stimulate appetite."
Rationale: Small, frequent meals help prevent nausea by keeping the stomach from
becoming empty or overly full. Fluids should be consumed between meals, not with meals.
Lying down after eating can worsen nausea. Spicy foods may irritate the stomach and worsen
nausea.
2. A nurse is calculating the estimated date of delivery (EDD) for a client whose last menstrual
period began on March 10. Using Naegele's rule, what is the EDD?
A. December 10
B. December 17
C. December 24
D. January 10
Rationale: Naegele's rule: Subtract 3 months from the first day of the LMP and add 7 days.
March 10 minus 3 months = December 10; December 10 + 7 days = December 17.
3. A nurse is assessing a client at 24 weeks gestation. Which of the following findings should
the nurse report to the provider?
A. Fundal height of 24 cm
B. Blood pressure 118/76 mm Hg
C. Fetal heart rate of 110/min
D. Hemoglobin 11.5 g/dL
, Rationale: A fetal heart rate of 110/min is at the lower limit of normal (normal 110–
160/min) but should be monitored closely. However, if consistently at 110, it should be
reported. Fundal height at 24 weeks should equal approximately 24 cm. BP 118/76 is normal.
Hemoglobin 11.5 g/dL is within normal limits for pregnancy (normal 11–16 g/dL).
4. A nurse is teaching a client about the purpose of the quad marker screen. Which of the
following conditions does this test detect? (SATA)
A. Neural tube defects
B. Down syndrome
C. Gestational diabetes
D. Trisomy 18
E. Placenta previa
Rationale: The quad marker screen (AFP, hCG, estriol, inhibin A) detects neural tube defects,
Down syndrome, and trisomy 18. It does not detect gestational diabetes or placenta previa.
5. A nurse is caring for a client in the first trimester who asks when she should expect to feel
fetal movement. The nurse should respond that quickening typically occurs at which of the
following times?
A. 8–10 weeks
B. 12–14 weeks
C. 16–20 weeks
D. 22–26 weeks
Rationale: Quickening, the first perception of fetal movement, typically occurs between 16
and 20 weeks gestation in primigravida clients and may occur slightly earlier in multigravida
clients.
6. A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client at 28 weeks gestation. Which of the
following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
A. Hemoglobin 10.5 g/dL
B. WBC 12,000/mm³
C. Platelets 250,000/mm³
D. Fasting glucose 85 mg/dL
, Rationale: Hemoglobin below 11 g/dL in the second trimester indicates anemia and should
be reported. WBC up to 15,000/mm³ is normal in pregnancy. Platelets 250,000/mm³ is normal.
Fasting glucose 85 mg/dL is normal.
7. A nurse is providing teaching to a client at 12 weeks gestation about nutrition. Which of the
following statements by the client indicates understanding?
A. "I should increase my folic acid intake to 600 mcg daily."
B. "I need to double my calorie intake during pregnancy."
C. "I should avoid all dairy products."
D. "I can continue my current exercise routine without modification."
Rationale: Folic acid 600 mcg daily is recommended during pregnancy to prevent neural
tube defects. Calorie needs increase by only 300–500 kcal/day in the second and third
trimesters. Dairy is an important source of calcium. Exercise should be modified as pregnancy
progresses.
8. A nurse is performing an initial prenatal assessment. Which of the following findings is a
positive sign of pregnancy?
A. Amenorrhea
B. Nausea and vomiting
C. Fetal heart tones auscultated by Doppler
D. Breast tenderness
Rationale: Positive signs of pregnancy are those that can only be caused by pregnancy: fetal
heart tones, fetal movement felt by examiner, and visualization of fetus. Amenorrhea, nausea,
and breast tenderness are presumptive signs.
9. A nurse is teaching a client about warning signs during pregnancy that require immediate
medical attention. Which of the following should the nurse include? (SATA)
A. Vaginal bleeding
B. Severe headache
C. Mild ankle edema
D. Blurred vision
E. Braxton Hicks contractions
, Rationale: Vaginal bleeding, severe headache, and blurred vision are warning signs of
complications such as placenta previa, preeclampsia, or abruption. Mild ankle edema and
Braxton Hicks contractions are common and expected.
10. A nurse is assessing a client at 36 weeks gestation who reports leaking fluid from the
vagina. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Perform a sterile speculum examination
B. Check the fetal heart rate
C. Obtain a urine specimen
D. Prepare the client for delivery
Rationale: The priority nursing action is to assess fetal well-being by checking the fetal heart
rate. This assesses for cord prolapse, which is an emergency. After confirming fetal well-being,
further testing (speculum exam, nitrazine test) can be performed.
11. A nurse is calculating the GTPAL for a client who has been pregnant 4 times, has 2 living
children, had 1 miscarriage at 10 weeks, and 1 preterm birth at 34 weeks. What is the correct
GTPAL?
A. G4 T1 P1 A1 L2
B. G4 T2 P0 A1 L2
C. G4 T1 P2 A1 L2
D. G4 T2 P1 A0 L2
Rationale: G = 4 (total pregnancies). T = 1 (term births at 37+ weeks — one living child born
at term). P = 1 (preterm birth at 34 weeks). A = 1 (miscarriage at 10 weeks). L = 2 (living
children).
12. A nurse is providing education about fetal development to a client at 20 weeks gestation.
The nurse should explain that which of the following structures is responsible for oxygen and
nutrient exchange?
A. Amnion
B. Chorion
C. Placenta
D. Umbilical cord
