NR 325 Final Exam Questions With Correct Answers
Adult Health II 2026-2027
NR 325 Final Exam Questions With Correct Answers
Adult Health II 2026-2027
1. The nurse is teaching a patient with type 2 diabetes about metformin. Which
mechanism of action is correct?
A) Decreases hepatic glucose production and increases insulin sensitivity.
B) Stimulates pancreatic beta cells to release insulin.
C) Slows carbohydrate absorption in the intestines.
D) Increases glucagon secretion.
Correct Answer: Decreases hepatic glucose production and increases insulin
sensitivity.
Rationale: Metformin reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis and enhances peripheral
insulin sensitivity, lowering blood glucose. It does not stimulate insulin
secretion, slow carbohydrate absorption, or increase glucagon.
2. A patient with hypoparathyroidism is at risk for which electrolyte imbalance?
A) Hypercalcemia
B) Hypocalcemia
C) Hypokalemia
D) Hypermagnesemia
Correct Answer: Hypocalcemia
,NR 325 Final Exam Questions With Correct Answers
Adult Health II 2026-2027
Rationale: Parathyroid hormone deficiency leads to decreased bone resorption
and renal calcium reabsorption, causing hypocalcemia. Hypercalcemia is
associated with hyperparathyroidism. Potassium and magnesium are not
primarily affected.
3. The nurse is caring for a patient with SIADH. Which laboratory finding is
expected?
A) Hypernatremia
B) Increased serum osmolality
C) Hyponatremia and concentrated urine
D) Low urine specific gravity
Correct Answer: Hyponatremia and concentrated urine
Rationale: Excess ADH causes water retention, diluting serum sodium
(hyponatremia) while urine remains inappropriately concentrated. Serum
osmolality is low. Hypernatremia and dilute urine occur in diabetes insipidus.
4. For a patient with Addison's disease who is at risk for addisonian crisis, which
intervention is the priority? A) Oral fluid replacement
B) Apply warming blankets
C) Administer antibiotics
D) Administer IV hydrocortisone as prescribed
Correct Answer: Administer IV hydrocortisone as prescribed
,NR 325 Final Exam Questions With Correct Answers
Adult Health II 2026-2027
Rationale: Addisonian crisis is acute adrenal insufficiency requiring immediate
glucocorticoid replacement to prevent shock. Fluids are also critical but the
definitive treatment is IV hydrocortisone.
5. The nurse is reviewing the medication record of a client with hyperthyroidism
prescribed propylthiouracil (PTU). Which adverse effect should the nurse
monitor for?
A) Agranulocytosis and liver toxicity
B) Hyperglycemia and weight gain
C) Tachycardia and hypertension
D) Increased appetite and diarrhea
Correct Answer: Agranulocytosis and liver toxicity
Rationale: PTU can cause severe bone marrow suppression and hepatotoxicity.
Tachycardia, increased appetite, and diarrhea are symptoms of
hyperthyroidism, not adverse effects of the drug.
6. When caring for a patient with chronic kidney disease stage 3, which GFR
range does the nurse expect?
A) Greater than 90 mL/min
B) 30–59 mL/min
C) 15–29 mL/min
D) Less than 15 mL/min
, NR 325 Final Exam Questions With Correct Answers
Adult Health II 2026-2027
Correct Answer: 30–59 mL/min
Rationale: Stage 3 CKD is defined by a GFR of 30–59 mL/min with evidence of
kidney damage. Stage 1 is GFR >90 with proteinuria, stage 4 is 15–29, and stage
5 is <15.
7. A client reports itching and has uremic frost on the skin. Which intervention
should the nurse implement? A) Encourage hot showers
B) Apply alcohol-based lotions
C) Protect skin with emollients and manage pruritus
D) Restrict all bathing
Correct Answer: Protect skin with emollients and manage pruritus
Rationale: Uremic frost results from urea crystal deposits through skin. Gentle
skin care with emollients and antipruritic measures soothes itching and
prevents breakdown. Hot water and alcohol dry skin.
8. Which food should a patient with chronic kidney disease limit to manage
hyperkalemia? A) White rice
B) Applesauce
C) Lean chicken
D) Bananas
Adult Health II 2026-2027
NR 325 Final Exam Questions With Correct Answers
Adult Health II 2026-2027
1. The nurse is teaching a patient with type 2 diabetes about metformin. Which
mechanism of action is correct?
A) Decreases hepatic glucose production and increases insulin sensitivity.
B) Stimulates pancreatic beta cells to release insulin.
C) Slows carbohydrate absorption in the intestines.
D) Increases glucagon secretion.
Correct Answer: Decreases hepatic glucose production and increases insulin
sensitivity.
Rationale: Metformin reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis and enhances peripheral
insulin sensitivity, lowering blood glucose. It does not stimulate insulin
secretion, slow carbohydrate absorption, or increase glucagon.
2. A patient with hypoparathyroidism is at risk for which electrolyte imbalance?
A) Hypercalcemia
B) Hypocalcemia
C) Hypokalemia
D) Hypermagnesemia
Correct Answer: Hypocalcemia
,NR 325 Final Exam Questions With Correct Answers
Adult Health II 2026-2027
Rationale: Parathyroid hormone deficiency leads to decreased bone resorption
and renal calcium reabsorption, causing hypocalcemia. Hypercalcemia is
associated with hyperparathyroidism. Potassium and magnesium are not
primarily affected.
3. The nurse is caring for a patient with SIADH. Which laboratory finding is
expected?
A) Hypernatremia
B) Increased serum osmolality
C) Hyponatremia and concentrated urine
D) Low urine specific gravity
Correct Answer: Hyponatremia and concentrated urine
Rationale: Excess ADH causes water retention, diluting serum sodium
(hyponatremia) while urine remains inappropriately concentrated. Serum
osmolality is low. Hypernatremia and dilute urine occur in diabetes insipidus.
4. For a patient with Addison's disease who is at risk for addisonian crisis, which
intervention is the priority? A) Oral fluid replacement
B) Apply warming blankets
C) Administer antibiotics
D) Administer IV hydrocortisone as prescribed
Correct Answer: Administer IV hydrocortisone as prescribed
,NR 325 Final Exam Questions With Correct Answers
Adult Health II 2026-2027
Rationale: Addisonian crisis is acute adrenal insufficiency requiring immediate
glucocorticoid replacement to prevent shock. Fluids are also critical but the
definitive treatment is IV hydrocortisone.
5. The nurse is reviewing the medication record of a client with hyperthyroidism
prescribed propylthiouracil (PTU). Which adverse effect should the nurse
monitor for?
A) Agranulocytosis and liver toxicity
B) Hyperglycemia and weight gain
C) Tachycardia and hypertension
D) Increased appetite and diarrhea
Correct Answer: Agranulocytosis and liver toxicity
Rationale: PTU can cause severe bone marrow suppression and hepatotoxicity.
Tachycardia, increased appetite, and diarrhea are symptoms of
hyperthyroidism, not adverse effects of the drug.
6. When caring for a patient with chronic kidney disease stage 3, which GFR
range does the nurse expect?
A) Greater than 90 mL/min
B) 30–59 mL/min
C) 15–29 mL/min
D) Less than 15 mL/min
, NR 325 Final Exam Questions With Correct Answers
Adult Health II 2026-2027
Correct Answer: 30–59 mL/min
Rationale: Stage 3 CKD is defined by a GFR of 30–59 mL/min with evidence of
kidney damage. Stage 1 is GFR >90 with proteinuria, stage 4 is 15–29, and stage
5 is <15.
7. A client reports itching and has uremic frost on the skin. Which intervention
should the nurse implement? A) Encourage hot showers
B) Apply alcohol-based lotions
C) Protect skin with emollients and manage pruritus
D) Restrict all bathing
Correct Answer: Protect skin with emollients and manage pruritus
Rationale: Uremic frost results from urea crystal deposits through skin. Gentle
skin care with emollients and antipruritic measures soothes itching and
prevents breakdown. Hot water and alcohol dry skin.
8. Which food should a patient with chronic kidney disease limit to manage
hyperkalemia? A) White rice
B) Applesauce
C) Lean chicken
D) Bananas
