MATERNITY NSG 3500 EXAM 1
NEW SET WITH 100% VERIFIED
SOLUTIONS 2026 UPDATE!! |
Verified Questions
MATERNITY NSG 3500 EXAM 1 NEW SET | Comprehensive
Examination
MATERNITY NSG 3500 EXAM 1 NEW SET WITH 100%
VERIFIED SOLUTIONS 2026 UPDATE!! actual exam
preparation document with verified questions, complete
INTRODUCTION
This document is an important and very helpful preparation
resource for MATERNITY NSG 3500 EXAM 1 NEW SET
WITH 100% VERIFIED SOLUTIONS 2026 UPDATE!!. Every
item uses a focused exam stem, four response options, a keyed
response, and a clear rationale, making it easier to understand
the subject, spot distractors, and build real exam confidence.
Page 1
, Question 1
A laboring patient at 41 weeks gestation has a Category II fetal heart tracing
with recurrent late decelerations. The nurse has already repositioned the patient
laterally, administered a 500 mL IV bolus, and discontinued oxytocin. Which
subsequent action best reflects the next priority in intrauterine resuscitation?
A. Prepare for immediate cesarean birth because late decelerations are
always nonreassuring.
B. Administer oxygen at 10 L/min via nonrebreather mask and notify the
provider of the unresolved pattern.
C. Increase oxytocin to strengthen contractions and shorten the second
stage.
D. Document the pattern as Category I and continue routine monitoring.
Correct Answer: B - Administer oxygen at 10 L/min via
nonrebreather mask and notify the provider of the unresolved
pattern.
RATIONALE
After lateral positioning, IV fluid bolus, and discontinuation of
oxytocin, the next intrauterine resuscitation step is maternal oxygen
supplementation and provider notification when late decelerations
persist. Immediate cesarean is not automatically indicated for a
Category II tracing, and increasing oxytocin or reclassifying as
Category I would be unsafe.
Question 2
Which statement best explains why a patient in the latent phase of the first
stage of labor may be counseled to remain at home rather than be admitted
immediately?
A. Admission during the latent phase increases the likelihood of
unnecessary obstetric interventions without improving outcomes.
B. Latent phase is defined by cervical dilation of 6 cm or greater, which
Page 2
, requires hospital monitoring.
C. The latent phase is typically shorter than the active phase and rarely
exceeds 2 hours.
D. Fetal descent does not occur until the active phase, so assessment is
unnecessary.
Correct Answer: A - Admission during the latent phase increases
the likelihood of unnecessary obstetric interventions without
improving outcomes.
RATIONALE
Evidence supports that early admission in the latent phase is
associated with more cesarean births, epidural use, and oxytocin
augmentation without improved maternal or neonatal outcomes.
Latent phase is 0-5 cm with slow change, can last many hours, and
fetal descent begins before active phase.
Question 3
A patient receiving magnesium sulfate for seizure prophylaxis has a respiratory
rate of 10 breaths/min, absent deep tendon reflexes, and urine output of 20
mL/hr. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Stop the magnesium infusion and prepare to administer calcium
gluconate.
B. Increase the infusion rate to maintain therapeutic serum levels.
C. Document findings and reassess in 30 minutes.
D. Administer a bolus of lactated Ringer's to increase urine output.
Correct Answer: A - Stop the magnesium infusion and prepare to
administer calcium gluconate.
Page 3
, RATIONALE
These findings indicate magnesium toxicity; the infusion must be
stopped immediately and calcium gluconate, the antidote, should be
prepared. Increasing the rate would worsen toxicity, and delaying
intervention or giving fluids alone does not reverse neuromuscular
blockade.
Question 4
Which physiologic rationale best explains why the neonatal ductus arteriosus
functionally closes within the first 24-72 hours after birth?
A. Increased pulmonary vascular resistance and decreased systemic
vascular resistance
B. Decreased prostaglandin E2 levels and increased arterial oxygen
tension
C. Closure of the foramen ovale reduces left atrial pressure
D. Surfactant release decreases alveolar surface tension
Correct Answer: B - Decreased prostaglandin E2 levels and
increased arterial oxygen tension
RATIONALE
Functional closure of the ductus arteriosus results from rising PaO2
and falling prostaglandin E2 after birth, which constrict the smooth
muscle. Pulmonary vascular resistance decreases while systemic
resistance increases, and foramen ovale closure is a separate event
related to pressure changes.
Question 5
A patient at 36 weeks gestation presents with painless, bright red vaginal
bleeding. Which assessment finding would most strongly suggest placenta
previa rather than abruptio placentae?
A. Board-like abdomen with uterine tenderness
B. Fetal heart tracing showing late decelerations
Page 4
NEW SET WITH 100% VERIFIED
SOLUTIONS 2026 UPDATE!! |
Verified Questions
MATERNITY NSG 3500 EXAM 1 NEW SET | Comprehensive
Examination
MATERNITY NSG 3500 EXAM 1 NEW SET WITH 100%
VERIFIED SOLUTIONS 2026 UPDATE!! actual exam
preparation document with verified questions, complete
INTRODUCTION
This document is an important and very helpful preparation
resource for MATERNITY NSG 3500 EXAM 1 NEW SET
WITH 100% VERIFIED SOLUTIONS 2026 UPDATE!!. Every
item uses a focused exam stem, four response options, a keyed
response, and a clear rationale, making it easier to understand
the subject, spot distractors, and build real exam confidence.
Page 1
, Question 1
A laboring patient at 41 weeks gestation has a Category II fetal heart tracing
with recurrent late decelerations. The nurse has already repositioned the patient
laterally, administered a 500 mL IV bolus, and discontinued oxytocin. Which
subsequent action best reflects the next priority in intrauterine resuscitation?
A. Prepare for immediate cesarean birth because late decelerations are
always nonreassuring.
B. Administer oxygen at 10 L/min via nonrebreather mask and notify the
provider of the unresolved pattern.
C. Increase oxytocin to strengthen contractions and shorten the second
stage.
D. Document the pattern as Category I and continue routine monitoring.
Correct Answer: B - Administer oxygen at 10 L/min via
nonrebreather mask and notify the provider of the unresolved
pattern.
RATIONALE
After lateral positioning, IV fluid bolus, and discontinuation of
oxytocin, the next intrauterine resuscitation step is maternal oxygen
supplementation and provider notification when late decelerations
persist. Immediate cesarean is not automatically indicated for a
Category II tracing, and increasing oxytocin or reclassifying as
Category I would be unsafe.
Question 2
Which statement best explains why a patient in the latent phase of the first
stage of labor may be counseled to remain at home rather than be admitted
immediately?
A. Admission during the latent phase increases the likelihood of
unnecessary obstetric interventions without improving outcomes.
B. Latent phase is defined by cervical dilation of 6 cm or greater, which
Page 2
, requires hospital monitoring.
C. The latent phase is typically shorter than the active phase and rarely
exceeds 2 hours.
D. Fetal descent does not occur until the active phase, so assessment is
unnecessary.
Correct Answer: A - Admission during the latent phase increases
the likelihood of unnecessary obstetric interventions without
improving outcomes.
RATIONALE
Evidence supports that early admission in the latent phase is
associated with more cesarean births, epidural use, and oxytocin
augmentation without improved maternal or neonatal outcomes.
Latent phase is 0-5 cm with slow change, can last many hours, and
fetal descent begins before active phase.
Question 3
A patient receiving magnesium sulfate for seizure prophylaxis has a respiratory
rate of 10 breaths/min, absent deep tendon reflexes, and urine output of 20
mL/hr. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Stop the magnesium infusion and prepare to administer calcium
gluconate.
B. Increase the infusion rate to maintain therapeutic serum levels.
C. Document findings and reassess in 30 minutes.
D. Administer a bolus of lactated Ringer's to increase urine output.
Correct Answer: A - Stop the magnesium infusion and prepare to
administer calcium gluconate.
Page 3
, RATIONALE
These findings indicate magnesium toxicity; the infusion must be
stopped immediately and calcium gluconate, the antidote, should be
prepared. Increasing the rate would worsen toxicity, and delaying
intervention or giving fluids alone does not reverse neuromuscular
blockade.
Question 4
Which physiologic rationale best explains why the neonatal ductus arteriosus
functionally closes within the first 24-72 hours after birth?
A. Increased pulmonary vascular resistance and decreased systemic
vascular resistance
B. Decreased prostaglandin E2 levels and increased arterial oxygen
tension
C. Closure of the foramen ovale reduces left atrial pressure
D. Surfactant release decreases alveolar surface tension
Correct Answer: B - Decreased prostaglandin E2 levels and
increased arterial oxygen tension
RATIONALE
Functional closure of the ductus arteriosus results from rising PaO2
and falling prostaglandin E2 after birth, which constrict the smooth
muscle. Pulmonary vascular resistance decreases while systemic
resistance increases, and foramen ovale closure is a separate event
related to pressure changes.
Question 5
A patient at 36 weeks gestation presents with painless, bright red vaginal
bleeding. Which assessment finding would most strongly suggest placenta
previa rather than abruptio placentae?
A. Board-like abdomen with uterine tenderness
B. Fetal heart tracing showing late decelerations
Page 4
