ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor 2026 |
Full Test Bank (Forms A, B & C) with
100% Verified Questions
ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor 2026 Practice Examination
Full 180-Question Test Bank (Forms A, B & C Combined)
Q1. A nurse is caring for a client who has been prescribed lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder. The
client's serum lithium level is 1.8 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
A. Coarse hand tremors
B. Polyuria
C. Bradycardia
D. Hypertension
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A serum lithium level of 1.8 mEq/L indicates lithium toxicity (therapeutic range is typically
0.6–1.2 mEq/L). Coarse hand tremors are a classic early sign of lithium toxicity, along with confusion,
vomiting, and ataxia. Polyuria can occur at therapeutic levels due to lithium's effect on ADH.
Bradycardia and hypertension are not typical manifestations of lithium toxicity; cardiac effects more
commonly include dysrhythmias in severe toxicity.
Q2. A nurse is preparing to initiate IV fluids via an infusion pump. Which of the following actions
should the nurse take first?
A. Obtain a surge protector that can accommodate multiple appliances
B. Verify that the extension cord for the pump is ungrounded
C. Check the expiration date on the safety inspection sticker of the pump
D. Proceed with the infusion if the pump appears intact
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Before using any electrical medical equipment, the nurse must verify that the device has
a current safety inspection sticker. Using an uninspected pump could pose electrical hazards to both
the client and staff. A frayed cord or ungrounded equipment should never be used. Safety
verification precedes all other actions.
pg. 1
,Q3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following
foods should the nurse instruct the client to maintain a consistent intake of?
A. Spinach
B. Milk
C. Bananas
D. Grapefruit
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Spinach is high in vitamin K, which counteracts warfarin's anticoagulant effect. Clients on
warfarin should maintain a consistent daily intake of vitamin K–rich foods rather than eliminating
them entirely, as fluctuations can alter INR levels. Milk, bananas, and grapefruit do not significantly
interact with warfarin's mechanism, though grapefruit can affect other medications.
Q4. A nurse is administering medications to a client who has heart failure. Which of the following
findings requires the nurse to withhold digoxin and notify the provider?
A. Apical pulse of 58/min
B. Serum potassium of 3.2 mEq/L
C. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg
D. Serum digoxin level of 1.0 ng/mL
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hypokalemia (potassium < 3.5 mEq/L) increases the risk of digoxin toxicity because
digoxin and potassium compete for the same binding sites. The nurse should withhold digoxin, notify
the provider, and anticipate potassium replacement. An apical pulse of 58/min is borderline; digoxin
is typically held for rates below 60/min, but hypokalemia is the more urgent concern. A digoxin level
of 1.0 ng/mL is within therapeutic range (0.5–2.0 ng/mL).
Q5. A nurse is caring for a client who has been receiving heparin therapy. The client's aPTT is 120
seconds. Which of the following actions should the nurse anticipate?
A. Administer protamine sulfate
B. Increase the heparin infusion rate
C. Continue the infusion at the current rate
D. Administer vitamin K
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A therapeutic aPTT for a client on heparin is typically 1.5–2.5 times the control value
(approximately 60–80 seconds). An aPTT of 120 seconds indicates excessive anticoagulation and risk
of hemorrhage. Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin overdose. Vitamin K is the antidote for
warfarin, not heparin.
pg. 2
,Q6. A nurse is caring for a client who has respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). Which of the following
precautions should the nurse implement?
A. Airborne precautions
B. Contact precautions
C. Droplet precautions
D. Standard precautions only
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: RSV is transmitted primarily through direct contact with contaminated secretions.
Contact precautions, including gloves and gown, are required. A designated stethoscope should be
used for the client. Airborne precautions are for diseases such as tuberculosis and measles. Droplet
precautions are for influenza and pertussis.
Q7. A nurse is performing a skin assessment for a client who is on bedrest. Which of the following
actions should the nurse take to prevent a pressure injury?
A. Massage reddened bony prominences
B. Reposition the client every 2 hours
C. Apply a donut ring pillow under the sacrum
D. Keep the head of the bed elevated at 60 degrees
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Repositioning at least every 2 hours relieves pressure on dependent areas and is a
cornerstone of pressure injury prevention. Massaging reddened areas can worsen tissue damage.
Donut ring pillows are contraindicated because they concentrate pressure and impair circulation.
Elevating the head of the bed beyond 30 degrees increases shear and friction forces on the sacrum.
Q8. A nurse is teaching a group of restaurant workers about hepatitis A. Which of the following
statements should the nurse include?
A. "Manifestations first appear 6 months after exposure."
B. "With immunizations, your risk of contracting hepatitis A is reduced by half."
C. "You can get hepatitis A by eating undercooked pork products."
D. "Hepatitis A can be spread by fecal-oral contact."
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Hepatitis A is transmitted primarily through the fecal-oral route, often via contaminated
food or water. Symptoms typically appear 2–6 weeks after exposure, not 6 months. The hepatitis A
pg. 3
, vaccine is highly effective, reducing risk by approximately 95%. Undercooked pork is associated with
hepatitis E and trichinosis, not hepatitis A.
Q9. A home health nurse is admitting a client who is prescribed peritoneal dialysis. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Confirm the schedule for delivery of supplies
B. Coordinate interdisciplinary health care services
C. Clarify the client's actual and perceived health needs
D. Demonstrate how to perform the procedure
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The first step in the nursing process is assessment. Clarifying the client's actual and
perceived health needs allows the nurse to develop an individualized plan of care and identify
barriers to adherence. Supply delivery and interdisciplinary coordination are important but
secondary to understanding the client's needs.
Q10. A nurse is performing an admission assessment for a client who is to undergo a colonoscopy.
The client reports taking prescribed medications before coming to the clinic. Which of the following
medications is the priority to report to the provider?
A. Metoprolol
B. Clopidogrel
C. Metformin
D. Digoxin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet agent that increases bleeding risk during invasive
procedures such as colonoscopy, especially if polypectomy is performed. The provider must be
notified. Metformin may need to be held before procedures with contrast, but this is less urgent.
Metoprolol and digoxin are typically continued.
Q11. A client asks the nurse if it is safe to take a glucosamine supplement. The nurse should assess
for which of the following potential contraindications?
A. Shellfish allergy
B. History of smoking
C. Cardiac dysrhythmia
D. Family history of malignant hyperthermia
Correct Answer: A
pg. 4
Full Test Bank (Forms A, B & C) with
100% Verified Questions
ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor 2026 Practice Examination
Full 180-Question Test Bank (Forms A, B & C Combined)
Q1. A nurse is caring for a client who has been prescribed lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder. The
client's serum lithium level is 1.8 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
A. Coarse hand tremors
B. Polyuria
C. Bradycardia
D. Hypertension
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A serum lithium level of 1.8 mEq/L indicates lithium toxicity (therapeutic range is typically
0.6–1.2 mEq/L). Coarse hand tremors are a classic early sign of lithium toxicity, along with confusion,
vomiting, and ataxia. Polyuria can occur at therapeutic levels due to lithium's effect on ADH.
Bradycardia and hypertension are not typical manifestations of lithium toxicity; cardiac effects more
commonly include dysrhythmias in severe toxicity.
Q2. A nurse is preparing to initiate IV fluids via an infusion pump. Which of the following actions
should the nurse take first?
A. Obtain a surge protector that can accommodate multiple appliances
B. Verify that the extension cord for the pump is ungrounded
C. Check the expiration date on the safety inspection sticker of the pump
D. Proceed with the infusion if the pump appears intact
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Before using any electrical medical equipment, the nurse must verify that the device has
a current safety inspection sticker. Using an uninspected pump could pose electrical hazards to both
the client and staff. A frayed cord or ungrounded equipment should never be used. Safety
verification precedes all other actions.
pg. 1
,Q3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following
foods should the nurse instruct the client to maintain a consistent intake of?
A. Spinach
B. Milk
C. Bananas
D. Grapefruit
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Spinach is high in vitamin K, which counteracts warfarin's anticoagulant effect. Clients on
warfarin should maintain a consistent daily intake of vitamin K–rich foods rather than eliminating
them entirely, as fluctuations can alter INR levels. Milk, bananas, and grapefruit do not significantly
interact with warfarin's mechanism, though grapefruit can affect other medications.
Q4. A nurse is administering medications to a client who has heart failure. Which of the following
findings requires the nurse to withhold digoxin and notify the provider?
A. Apical pulse of 58/min
B. Serum potassium of 3.2 mEq/L
C. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg
D. Serum digoxin level of 1.0 ng/mL
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hypokalemia (potassium < 3.5 mEq/L) increases the risk of digoxin toxicity because
digoxin and potassium compete for the same binding sites. The nurse should withhold digoxin, notify
the provider, and anticipate potassium replacement. An apical pulse of 58/min is borderline; digoxin
is typically held for rates below 60/min, but hypokalemia is the more urgent concern. A digoxin level
of 1.0 ng/mL is within therapeutic range (0.5–2.0 ng/mL).
Q5. A nurse is caring for a client who has been receiving heparin therapy. The client's aPTT is 120
seconds. Which of the following actions should the nurse anticipate?
A. Administer protamine sulfate
B. Increase the heparin infusion rate
C. Continue the infusion at the current rate
D. Administer vitamin K
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A therapeutic aPTT for a client on heparin is typically 1.5–2.5 times the control value
(approximately 60–80 seconds). An aPTT of 120 seconds indicates excessive anticoagulation and risk
of hemorrhage. Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin overdose. Vitamin K is the antidote for
warfarin, not heparin.
pg. 2
,Q6. A nurse is caring for a client who has respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). Which of the following
precautions should the nurse implement?
A. Airborne precautions
B. Contact precautions
C. Droplet precautions
D. Standard precautions only
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: RSV is transmitted primarily through direct contact with contaminated secretions.
Contact precautions, including gloves and gown, are required. A designated stethoscope should be
used for the client. Airborne precautions are for diseases such as tuberculosis and measles. Droplet
precautions are for influenza and pertussis.
Q7. A nurse is performing a skin assessment for a client who is on bedrest. Which of the following
actions should the nurse take to prevent a pressure injury?
A. Massage reddened bony prominences
B. Reposition the client every 2 hours
C. Apply a donut ring pillow under the sacrum
D. Keep the head of the bed elevated at 60 degrees
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Repositioning at least every 2 hours relieves pressure on dependent areas and is a
cornerstone of pressure injury prevention. Massaging reddened areas can worsen tissue damage.
Donut ring pillows are contraindicated because they concentrate pressure and impair circulation.
Elevating the head of the bed beyond 30 degrees increases shear and friction forces on the sacrum.
Q8. A nurse is teaching a group of restaurant workers about hepatitis A. Which of the following
statements should the nurse include?
A. "Manifestations first appear 6 months after exposure."
B. "With immunizations, your risk of contracting hepatitis A is reduced by half."
C. "You can get hepatitis A by eating undercooked pork products."
D. "Hepatitis A can be spread by fecal-oral contact."
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Hepatitis A is transmitted primarily through the fecal-oral route, often via contaminated
food or water. Symptoms typically appear 2–6 weeks after exposure, not 6 months. The hepatitis A
pg. 3
, vaccine is highly effective, reducing risk by approximately 95%. Undercooked pork is associated with
hepatitis E and trichinosis, not hepatitis A.
Q9. A home health nurse is admitting a client who is prescribed peritoneal dialysis. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Confirm the schedule for delivery of supplies
B. Coordinate interdisciplinary health care services
C. Clarify the client's actual and perceived health needs
D. Demonstrate how to perform the procedure
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The first step in the nursing process is assessment. Clarifying the client's actual and
perceived health needs allows the nurse to develop an individualized plan of care and identify
barriers to adherence. Supply delivery and interdisciplinary coordination are important but
secondary to understanding the client's needs.
Q10. A nurse is performing an admission assessment for a client who is to undergo a colonoscopy.
The client reports taking prescribed medications before coming to the clinic. Which of the following
medications is the priority to report to the provider?
A. Metoprolol
B. Clopidogrel
C. Metformin
D. Digoxin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet agent that increases bleeding risk during invasive
procedures such as colonoscopy, especially if polypectomy is performed. The provider must be
notified. Metformin may need to be held before procedures with contrast, but this is less urgent.
Metoprolol and digoxin are typically continued.
Q11. A client asks the nurse if it is safe to take a glucosamine supplement. The nurse should assess
for which of the following potential contraindications?
A. Shellfish allergy
B. History of smoking
C. Cardiac dysrhythmia
D. Family history of malignant hyperthermia
Correct Answer: A
pg. 4
