NR 605 EXAM 1 2026/2027-EDITION REAL EXAM
QUESTIONS AND 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS +
RATIONALE
Advanced Psychopathology, Diagnosis & Psychopharmacology Foundations | 110 High-
Yield Questions with Answers And Rationale
OVERVIEW: This practice exam is built for NR 605 Exam 1 (2026) preparation and simulates real
exam style. It covers core foundations: DSM-5-TR diagnostic criteria for depression, bipolar,
schizophrenia spectrum, anxiety, trauma, and personality disorders; neurobiology and
neurotransmitter pathways; psychopharmacology including SSRIs, SNRIs, mood stabilizers,
antipsychotics, and anxiolytics; black box warnings, side effects like EPS, metabolic syndrome,
serotonin syndrome, and NMS; baseline labs and monitoring; and evidence-based screening and
therapeutic communication.
All correct answes are highlight with green and Rationale After.
1. A 32-year-old female reports 3 weeks of depressed mood, anhedonia, insomnia, and
guilt. What is the most likely DSM-5-TR diagnosis?
A. Major Depressive Disorder, Single Episode
B. Persistent Depressive Disorder
C. Adjustment Disorder with Depressed Mood
D. Normal Grief Reaction
Rationale: Meets 5+ symptoms for >2 weeks including depressed mood/anhedonia. Persistent
depressive requires 2 years. Adjustment is tied to stressor and does not meet full MDD criteria.
2. Which neurotransmitter is primarily associated with decreased levels in depression?
A. Dopamine
B. Serotonin
C. Acetylcholine
D. Glutamate
Rationale: Serotonin and norepinephrine deficits are classic in depression, though dopamine also
involved in anhedonia. SSRIs target serotonin.
3. A patient on fluoxetine presents with agitation, hyperthermia, and clonus after starting
tramadol. What condition should you suspect?
A. Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
B. Serotonin Syndrome
C. Anticholinergic Toxicity
D. Tardive Dyskinesia
Rationale: Clonus, hyperthermia, and agitation after serotonergic combo = serotonin syndrome. NMS
has rigidity and bradykinesia, not clonus.
,4. What is the first-line treatment for acute mania with psychotic features?
A. Lithium monotherapy
B. Second-generation antipsychotic + mood stabilizer
C. SSRI
D. Benzodiazepine monotherapy
Rationale: For mania with psychosis, combination of SGA (e.g., quetiapine, olanzapine) + mood
stabilizer is most effective. Lithium alone slower onset.
5. Which brain structure is hyperactive in anxiety disorders?
A. Amygdala
B. Cerebellum
C. Occipital lobe
D. Medulla
Rationale: Amygdala mediates fear response and is hyperactive in anxiety. Prefrontal cortex shows
decreased regulation.
6. Patient reports hearing voices commenting on his actions. This is best described as?
A. Auditory hallucination
B. Delusion of reference
C. Illusion
D. Thought insertion
Rationale: Hallucination is perception without stimulus. Delusion is false belief.
7. What is the black box warning for SSRIs in young adults?
A. Increased risk of suicidal ideation
B. Increased risk of stroke in all ages
C. Guaranteed addiction
D. Permanent memory loss
Rationale: FDA black box warns of increased suicidality in adolescents/young adults up to 24 years
with antidepressants. Monitor closely in first months.
8. A 36-year-old patient with PTSD is prescribed risperidone. What is the most important
baseline lab to obtain?
A. Thyroid panel, BUN/Creatinine
B. Urinalysis only
C. No labs needed
D. Genetic testing
Rationale: Baseline labs essential to monitor adverse effects and renal/thyroid function for mood
stabilizers and metabolic effects for antipsychotics.
9. Which side effect is associated with olanzapine requiring regular monitoring?
, A. Tardive dyskinesia risk
B. No monitoring needed
C. Only blood pressure
D. Vision changes only
Rationale: Second-gen antipsychotics require metabolic monitoring; clozapine specifically requires
ANC monitoring due to agranulocytosis risk.
10. What is the black box warning for Benzodiazepines in young adults?
A. Increased risk of suicidal ideation
B. Increased risk of stroke in all ages
C. Guaranteed addiction
D. Permanent memory loss
Rationale: FDA black box warns of increased suicidality in adolescents/young adults up to 24 years
with antidepressants. Monitor closely in first months.
11. What is the black box warning for Antipsychotics in young adults?
A. Increased risk of suicidal ideation
B. Increased risk of stroke in all ages
C. Guaranteed addiction
D. Permanent memory loss
Rationale: FDA black box warns of increased suicidality in adolescents/young adults up to 24 years
with antidepressants. Monitor closely in first months.
12. What is the black box warning for Benzodiazepines in young adults?
A. Increased risk of suicidal ideation
B. Increased risk of stroke in all ages
C. Guaranteed addiction
D. Permanent memory loss
Rationale: FDA black box warns of increased suicidality in adolescents/young adults up to 24 years
with antidepressants. Monitor closely in first months.
13. Which DSM-5-TR criterion differentiates Delusional Disorder from other psychotic
disorders?
A. Duration and presence of mood episode with psychosis
B. Age of onset only
C. Gender distribution
D. Response to antipsychotics
Rationale: Schizoaffective requires mood episode present for majority of illness with psychosis, with
psychosis present without mood for at least 2 weeks.
14. Which DSM-5-TR criterion differentiates Brief Psychotic Disorder from other psychotic
disorders?
QUESTIONS AND 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS +
RATIONALE
Advanced Psychopathology, Diagnosis & Psychopharmacology Foundations | 110 High-
Yield Questions with Answers And Rationale
OVERVIEW: This practice exam is built for NR 605 Exam 1 (2026) preparation and simulates real
exam style. It covers core foundations: DSM-5-TR diagnostic criteria for depression, bipolar,
schizophrenia spectrum, anxiety, trauma, and personality disorders; neurobiology and
neurotransmitter pathways; psychopharmacology including SSRIs, SNRIs, mood stabilizers,
antipsychotics, and anxiolytics; black box warnings, side effects like EPS, metabolic syndrome,
serotonin syndrome, and NMS; baseline labs and monitoring; and evidence-based screening and
therapeutic communication.
All correct answes are highlight with green and Rationale After.
1. A 32-year-old female reports 3 weeks of depressed mood, anhedonia, insomnia, and
guilt. What is the most likely DSM-5-TR diagnosis?
A. Major Depressive Disorder, Single Episode
B. Persistent Depressive Disorder
C. Adjustment Disorder with Depressed Mood
D. Normal Grief Reaction
Rationale: Meets 5+ symptoms for >2 weeks including depressed mood/anhedonia. Persistent
depressive requires 2 years. Adjustment is tied to stressor and does not meet full MDD criteria.
2. Which neurotransmitter is primarily associated with decreased levels in depression?
A. Dopamine
B. Serotonin
C. Acetylcholine
D. Glutamate
Rationale: Serotonin and norepinephrine deficits are classic in depression, though dopamine also
involved in anhedonia. SSRIs target serotonin.
3. A patient on fluoxetine presents with agitation, hyperthermia, and clonus after starting
tramadol. What condition should you suspect?
A. Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
B. Serotonin Syndrome
C. Anticholinergic Toxicity
D. Tardive Dyskinesia
Rationale: Clonus, hyperthermia, and agitation after serotonergic combo = serotonin syndrome. NMS
has rigidity and bradykinesia, not clonus.
,4. What is the first-line treatment for acute mania with psychotic features?
A. Lithium monotherapy
B. Second-generation antipsychotic + mood stabilizer
C. SSRI
D. Benzodiazepine monotherapy
Rationale: For mania with psychosis, combination of SGA (e.g., quetiapine, olanzapine) + mood
stabilizer is most effective. Lithium alone slower onset.
5. Which brain structure is hyperactive in anxiety disorders?
A. Amygdala
B. Cerebellum
C. Occipital lobe
D. Medulla
Rationale: Amygdala mediates fear response and is hyperactive in anxiety. Prefrontal cortex shows
decreased regulation.
6. Patient reports hearing voices commenting on his actions. This is best described as?
A. Auditory hallucination
B. Delusion of reference
C. Illusion
D. Thought insertion
Rationale: Hallucination is perception without stimulus. Delusion is false belief.
7. What is the black box warning for SSRIs in young adults?
A. Increased risk of suicidal ideation
B. Increased risk of stroke in all ages
C. Guaranteed addiction
D. Permanent memory loss
Rationale: FDA black box warns of increased suicidality in adolescents/young adults up to 24 years
with antidepressants. Monitor closely in first months.
8. A 36-year-old patient with PTSD is prescribed risperidone. What is the most important
baseline lab to obtain?
A. Thyroid panel, BUN/Creatinine
B. Urinalysis only
C. No labs needed
D. Genetic testing
Rationale: Baseline labs essential to monitor adverse effects and renal/thyroid function for mood
stabilizers and metabolic effects for antipsychotics.
9. Which side effect is associated with olanzapine requiring regular monitoring?
, A. Tardive dyskinesia risk
B. No monitoring needed
C. Only blood pressure
D. Vision changes only
Rationale: Second-gen antipsychotics require metabolic monitoring; clozapine specifically requires
ANC monitoring due to agranulocytosis risk.
10. What is the black box warning for Benzodiazepines in young adults?
A. Increased risk of suicidal ideation
B. Increased risk of stroke in all ages
C. Guaranteed addiction
D. Permanent memory loss
Rationale: FDA black box warns of increased suicidality in adolescents/young adults up to 24 years
with antidepressants. Monitor closely in first months.
11. What is the black box warning for Antipsychotics in young adults?
A. Increased risk of suicidal ideation
B. Increased risk of stroke in all ages
C. Guaranteed addiction
D. Permanent memory loss
Rationale: FDA black box warns of increased suicidality in adolescents/young adults up to 24 years
with antidepressants. Monitor closely in first months.
12. What is the black box warning for Benzodiazepines in young adults?
A. Increased risk of suicidal ideation
B. Increased risk of stroke in all ages
C. Guaranteed addiction
D. Permanent memory loss
Rationale: FDA black box warns of increased suicidality in adolescents/young adults up to 24 years
with antidepressants. Monitor closely in first months.
13. Which DSM-5-TR criterion differentiates Delusional Disorder from other psychotic
disorders?
A. Duration and presence of mood episode with psychosis
B. Age of onset only
C. Gender distribution
D. Response to antipsychotics
Rationale: Schizoaffective requires mood episode present for majority of illness with psychosis, with
psychosis present without mood for at least 2 weeks.
14. Which DSM-5-TR criterion differentiates Brief Psychotic Disorder from other psychotic
disorders?
