NR 667 FNP Practicum Summary
Guide 2026/2027 | 150 Verified
Questions & Answers with
Rationales | Chamberlain University
FNP Prep | graded A+ Instant
Download | guaranteed pass!!
NR 667 FNP Practicum Summary Guide — Questions 1–150
1. A 58-year-old patient with hypertension has an average blood pressure of 156/94
mmHg despite lifestyle modifications. Which medication is an appropriate first-line
option?
A. Clonidine
B. Hydrochlorothiazide
C. Propranolol
D. Hydralazine
Answer: B. Hydrochlorothiazide
Rationale: Thiazide-type diuretics are appropriate first-line antihypertensive therapy for
many adults with uncomplicated hypertension. Treatment should also include lifestyle
modification and ongoing blood-pressure monitoring.
2. A patient with type 2 diabetes has an A1C of 9.2% despite adherence to metformin.
What is the most appropriate next step?
A. Discontinue metformin
B. Add another glucose-lowering medication
C. Stop all pharmacologic therapy
D. Recheck the A1C in two years
Answer: B. Add another glucose-lowering medication
Rationale: An A1C substantially above the individualized treatment goal generally warrants
intensification of therapy rather than continued monotherapy without adjustment.
3. Which finding is most concerning in a patient presenting with chest discomfort?
A. Pain reproducible with palpation
B. Brief pain lasting two seconds
C. Substernal pressure with diaphoresis
D. Pain occurring only after eating spicy foods
,Answer: C. Substernal pressure with diaphoresis
Rationale: Substernal pressure associated with autonomic symptoms such as diaphoresis can
indicate acute coronary syndrome and requires urgent evaluation.
4. A patient reports sudden unilateral weakness, facial drooping, and difficulty speaking
that began 30 minutes ago. What should the FNP do first?
A. Schedule an outpatient MRI
B. Recommend oral aspirin at home and reassess tomorrow
C. Activate emergency stroke evaluation
D. Arrange routine neurology follow-up
Answer: C. Activate emergency stroke evaluation
Rationale: Sudden focal neurologic deficits are classic warning signs of acute stroke. Rapid
emergency evaluation is essential because time-sensitive treatments may be available.
5. Which finding is most characteristic of hypothyroidism?
A. Heat intolerance
B. Weight loss
C. Tremor
D. Cold intolerance
Answer: D. Cold intolerance
Rationale: Hypothyroidism commonly produces fatigue, weight gain, constipation, dry skin,
bradycardia, and cold intolerance.
6. A patient taking levothyroxine asks how to take the medication. Which instruction is
best?
A. Take it with calcium supplements
B. Take it consistently on an empty stomach
C. Take it only when symptoms occur
D. Take it immediately after a high-fiber meal
Answer: B. Take it consistently on an empty stomach
Rationale: Levothyroxine absorption is affected by food and several medications and
supplements. Consistent administration, commonly on an empty stomach, helps maintain
stable thyroid replacement.
7. A patient with asthma uses a short-acting beta-agonist several times every day. What
does this suggest?
A. Excellent asthma control
B. Possible inadequate long-term control
C. Medication allergy
D. Resolution of asthma
Answer: B. Possible inadequate long-term control
Rationale: Frequent reliance on a rescue inhaler suggests poor control and should prompt
assessment of adherence, triggers, inhaler technique, and the need for controller therapy.
8. Which symptom is most typical of gastroesophageal reflux disease?
A. Burning retrosternal discomfort after meals
,B. Severe right-lower-quadrant pain
C. Painless jaundice
D. Hematuria
Answer: A. Burning retrosternal discomfort after meals
Rationale: GERD commonly causes heartburn and regurgitation, particularly after meals or
when lying down.
9. A patient has uncomplicated cystitis with dysuria and urinary frequency. Which
finding would require additional evaluation rather than treatment as simple cystitis?
A. Mild suprapubic discomfort
B. Urinary frequency
C. Flank pain with fever
D. Dysuria
Answer: C. Flank pain with fever
Rationale: Fever and flank pain suggest possible pyelonephritis rather than uncomplicated
lower urinary tract infection.
10. Which vaccine is routinely recommended for adults according to age and risk
factors?
A. Influenza vaccine
B. Smallpox vaccine for all adults
C. Rabies vaccine for every adult
D. Yellow fever vaccine for every adult
Answer: A. Influenza vaccine
Rationale: Annual influenza vaccination is recommended for most adults, with additional
vaccines determined by age, medical conditions, occupation, travel, and other risk factors.
11. A patient presents with a new irregularly irregular pulse. Which diagnostic test is
most appropriate to initially evaluate the rhythm?
A. ECG
B. Colonoscopy
C. Spirometry
D. Bone-density scan
Answer: A. ECG
Rationale: An electrocardiogram is the primary test used to identify and characterize cardiac
arrhythmias such as atrial fibrillation.
12. Which physical finding is most consistent with left-sided heart failure?
A. Pulmonary crackles
B. Isolated splenomegaly
C. Warm flushed skin
D. Hyperactive bowel sounds
Answer: A. Pulmonary crackles
Rationale: Left-sided heart failure can cause pulmonary congestion, resulting in dyspnea,
orthopnea, and crackles on auscultation.
, 13. A patient with diabetes reports numbness and burning in both feet. Which
complication should the FNP suspect?
A. Peripheral neuropathy
B. Acute appendicitis
C. Hyperthyroidism
D. Migraine
Answer: A. Peripheral neuropathy
Rationale: Distal symmetric peripheral neuropathy is a common complication of diabetes
and often presents with burning, tingling, numbness, or altered sensation in the feet.
14. Which laboratory test is commonly used to monitor long-term glycemic control?
A. Hemoglobin A1C
B. Serum sodium
C. Amylase
D. Troponin
Answer: A. Hemoglobin A1C
Rationale: Hemoglobin A1C reflects average blood glucose exposure over approximately the
preceding two to three months.
15. A patient has a BMI of 33 kg/m². How should this BMI generally be classified in an
adult?
A. Underweight
B. Normal weight
C. Overweight
D. Obesity
Answer: D. Obesity
Rationale: In adults, a BMI of 30 kg/m² or greater falls within the obesity category.
16. Which counseling intervention is most appropriate for a patient who smokes
cigarettes and is ready to quit?
A. Tell the patient to stop without further assistance
B. Discuss evidence-based cessation treatments
C. Recommend switching permanently to cigars
D. Avoid discussing tobacco use
Answer: B. Discuss evidence-based cessation treatments
Rationale: Tobacco cessation counseling should include behavioral support and, when
appropriate, pharmacologic treatment.
17. Which symptom in a patient with depression requires immediate safety assessment?
A. Increased appetite
B. Difficulty concentrating
C. Suicidal thoughts
D. Mild fatigue
Guide 2026/2027 | 150 Verified
Questions & Answers with
Rationales | Chamberlain University
FNP Prep | graded A+ Instant
Download | guaranteed pass!!
NR 667 FNP Practicum Summary Guide — Questions 1–150
1. A 58-year-old patient with hypertension has an average blood pressure of 156/94
mmHg despite lifestyle modifications. Which medication is an appropriate first-line
option?
A. Clonidine
B. Hydrochlorothiazide
C. Propranolol
D. Hydralazine
Answer: B. Hydrochlorothiazide
Rationale: Thiazide-type diuretics are appropriate first-line antihypertensive therapy for
many adults with uncomplicated hypertension. Treatment should also include lifestyle
modification and ongoing blood-pressure monitoring.
2. A patient with type 2 diabetes has an A1C of 9.2% despite adherence to metformin.
What is the most appropriate next step?
A. Discontinue metformin
B. Add another glucose-lowering medication
C. Stop all pharmacologic therapy
D. Recheck the A1C in two years
Answer: B. Add another glucose-lowering medication
Rationale: An A1C substantially above the individualized treatment goal generally warrants
intensification of therapy rather than continued monotherapy without adjustment.
3. Which finding is most concerning in a patient presenting with chest discomfort?
A. Pain reproducible with palpation
B. Brief pain lasting two seconds
C. Substernal pressure with diaphoresis
D. Pain occurring only after eating spicy foods
,Answer: C. Substernal pressure with diaphoresis
Rationale: Substernal pressure associated with autonomic symptoms such as diaphoresis can
indicate acute coronary syndrome and requires urgent evaluation.
4. A patient reports sudden unilateral weakness, facial drooping, and difficulty speaking
that began 30 minutes ago. What should the FNP do first?
A. Schedule an outpatient MRI
B. Recommend oral aspirin at home and reassess tomorrow
C. Activate emergency stroke evaluation
D. Arrange routine neurology follow-up
Answer: C. Activate emergency stroke evaluation
Rationale: Sudden focal neurologic deficits are classic warning signs of acute stroke. Rapid
emergency evaluation is essential because time-sensitive treatments may be available.
5. Which finding is most characteristic of hypothyroidism?
A. Heat intolerance
B. Weight loss
C. Tremor
D. Cold intolerance
Answer: D. Cold intolerance
Rationale: Hypothyroidism commonly produces fatigue, weight gain, constipation, dry skin,
bradycardia, and cold intolerance.
6. A patient taking levothyroxine asks how to take the medication. Which instruction is
best?
A. Take it with calcium supplements
B. Take it consistently on an empty stomach
C. Take it only when symptoms occur
D. Take it immediately after a high-fiber meal
Answer: B. Take it consistently on an empty stomach
Rationale: Levothyroxine absorption is affected by food and several medications and
supplements. Consistent administration, commonly on an empty stomach, helps maintain
stable thyroid replacement.
7. A patient with asthma uses a short-acting beta-agonist several times every day. What
does this suggest?
A. Excellent asthma control
B. Possible inadequate long-term control
C. Medication allergy
D. Resolution of asthma
Answer: B. Possible inadequate long-term control
Rationale: Frequent reliance on a rescue inhaler suggests poor control and should prompt
assessment of adherence, triggers, inhaler technique, and the need for controller therapy.
8. Which symptom is most typical of gastroesophageal reflux disease?
A. Burning retrosternal discomfort after meals
,B. Severe right-lower-quadrant pain
C. Painless jaundice
D. Hematuria
Answer: A. Burning retrosternal discomfort after meals
Rationale: GERD commonly causes heartburn and regurgitation, particularly after meals or
when lying down.
9. A patient has uncomplicated cystitis with dysuria and urinary frequency. Which
finding would require additional evaluation rather than treatment as simple cystitis?
A. Mild suprapubic discomfort
B. Urinary frequency
C. Flank pain with fever
D. Dysuria
Answer: C. Flank pain with fever
Rationale: Fever and flank pain suggest possible pyelonephritis rather than uncomplicated
lower urinary tract infection.
10. Which vaccine is routinely recommended for adults according to age and risk
factors?
A. Influenza vaccine
B. Smallpox vaccine for all adults
C. Rabies vaccine for every adult
D. Yellow fever vaccine for every adult
Answer: A. Influenza vaccine
Rationale: Annual influenza vaccination is recommended for most adults, with additional
vaccines determined by age, medical conditions, occupation, travel, and other risk factors.
11. A patient presents with a new irregularly irregular pulse. Which diagnostic test is
most appropriate to initially evaluate the rhythm?
A. ECG
B. Colonoscopy
C. Spirometry
D. Bone-density scan
Answer: A. ECG
Rationale: An electrocardiogram is the primary test used to identify and characterize cardiac
arrhythmias such as atrial fibrillation.
12. Which physical finding is most consistent with left-sided heart failure?
A. Pulmonary crackles
B. Isolated splenomegaly
C. Warm flushed skin
D. Hyperactive bowel sounds
Answer: A. Pulmonary crackles
Rationale: Left-sided heart failure can cause pulmonary congestion, resulting in dyspnea,
orthopnea, and crackles on auscultation.
, 13. A patient with diabetes reports numbness and burning in both feet. Which
complication should the FNP suspect?
A. Peripheral neuropathy
B. Acute appendicitis
C. Hyperthyroidism
D. Migraine
Answer: A. Peripheral neuropathy
Rationale: Distal symmetric peripheral neuropathy is a common complication of diabetes
and often presents with burning, tingling, numbness, or altered sensation in the feet.
14. Which laboratory test is commonly used to monitor long-term glycemic control?
A. Hemoglobin A1C
B. Serum sodium
C. Amylase
D. Troponin
Answer: A. Hemoglobin A1C
Rationale: Hemoglobin A1C reflects average blood glucose exposure over approximately the
preceding two to three months.
15. A patient has a BMI of 33 kg/m². How should this BMI generally be classified in an
adult?
A. Underweight
B. Normal weight
C. Overweight
D. Obesity
Answer: D. Obesity
Rationale: In adults, a BMI of 30 kg/m² or greater falls within the obesity category.
16. Which counseling intervention is most appropriate for a patient who smokes
cigarettes and is ready to quit?
A. Tell the patient to stop without further assistance
B. Discuss evidence-based cessation treatments
C. Recommend switching permanently to cigars
D. Avoid discussing tobacco use
Answer: B. Discuss evidence-based cessation treatments
Rationale: Tobacco cessation counseling should include behavioral support and, when
appropriate, pharmacologic treatment.
17. Which symptom in a patient with depression requires immediate safety assessment?
A. Increased appetite
B. Difficulty concentrating
C. Suicidal thoughts
D. Mild fatigue
