NR 602 PRIMARY CARE CHILDBEARING &
CHILDREARING FAMILY MIDTERM EXAM
2026/2027 | 150 VERIFIED QUESTIONS &
ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES |
CHAMBERLAIN FNP PREP | INSTANT
DOWNLOAD
Domain 1: Antepartum and Prenatal Care Management
Question 1. During a client's first prenatal visit, she reports amenorrhea, nausea, and
breast tenderness. The nurse documents these findings as which category of
pregnancy signs?
A. Positive signs
B. Probable signs
C. Presumptive signs
D. Diagnostic signs
Correct Answer: C. Presumptive signs
Rationale: Presumptive signs are subjective symptoms reported by the client, such as
amenorrhea, nausea, breast changes, and fatigue. They suggest but do not confirm
pregnancy, as they can be caused by other conditions.
Question 2. A nurse palpates the uterine fundus at the level of the umbilicus. The
nurse estimates the gestational age to be approximately:
A. 12 weeks
B. 16 weeks
C. 20 weeks
D. 24 weeks
Correct Answer: C. 20 weeks
Rationale: A fundal height at the level of the umbilicus is a classic landmark for 20
weeks' gestation. At 12 weeks, the fundus is at the symphysis pubis. At 16 weeks, it is
midway between the symphysis pubis and umbilicus.
Question 3. A client's last menstrual period (LMP) began on May 10. Using Naegele's
rule, what is the client's estimated date of delivery (EDD)?
A. February 3
B. February 17
C. February 20
,D. February 24
Correct Answer: B. February 17
Rationale: Naegele's rule: Add 7 days (May 17), subtract 3 months (February 17), and
add 1 year if necessary.
Question 4. A client inquires about the most effective reversible contraceptive
method. The nurse should recommend a method from which tier?
A. Tier 1
B. Tier 2
C. Tier 3
D. Tier 4
Correct Answer: A. Tier 1
Rationale: Tier 1 contraceptives (e.g., IUDs, implants, sterilization) have the lowest
failure rates (<1%) and are considered the most effective reversible methods.
Question 5. During a pelvic assessment, the nurse notes the inlet is oval and the side
walls are straight. This description is most consistent with which pelvic type?
A. Android
B. Anthropoid
C. Gynecoid
D. Platypelloid
Correct Answer: C. Gynecoid
Rationale: The gynecoid pelvis has a rounded, oval inlet and straight side walls. It is the
most common and favorable pelvic type for vaginal birth.
Question 6. The nurse is teaching a client about the menstrual cycle. Which
hormone is primarily responsible for stimulating the growth of the ovarian follicle
during the follicular phase?
A. Estrogen
B. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
C. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
D. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
Correct Answer: B. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
Rationale: FSH, released from the anterior pituitary, directly targets the ovaries to
stimulate follicular growth and maturation during the follicular phase.
Question 7. A surge in which hormone is the direct trigger for ovulation?
A. Estrogen
B. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
C. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
D. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
Correct Answer: D. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
Rationale: A sharp surge in LH from the anterior pituitary triggers ovulation, typically
about 36 hours after the surge begins.
,Question 8. Which hormone is primarily responsible for maintaining the endometrial
lining during the luteal phase?
A. Follicle-stimulating hormone
B. Luteinizing hormone
C. Estrogen
D. Progesterone
Correct Answer: D. Progesterone
Rationale: After ovulation, the corpus luteum produces progesterone. Progesterone
stabilizes and prepares the endometrium for possible implantation and supports early
pregnancy until placental hormone production becomes established.
Question 9. A patient wants to prevent pregnancy and asks about highly effective
reversible contraception. Which option is classified as a long-acting reversible
contraceptive?
A. Combined oral contraceptive
B. Condoms
C. Intrauterine device
D. Fertility-awareness method
Correct Answer: C. Intrauterine device
Rationale: Intrauterine devices and contraceptive implants are long-acting reversible
contraceptives. They provide highly effective pregnancy prevention without requiring
daily adherence.
Question 10. Which history finding is most important before prescribing an
estrogen-containing combined hormonal contraceptive?
A. Seasonal allergies
B. Migraine with aura
C. Occasional dysmenorrhea
D. Family history of acne
Correct Answer: B. Migraine with aura
Rationale: Estrogen-containing contraception is generally avoided in patients with
migraine with aura because of the increased risk of ischemic stroke. A careful
cardiovascular and thrombotic-risk history is essential before prescribing estrogen-
containing methods.
Question 11. A patient taking combined oral contraceptives asks what to do if she
misses one active pill. What is the best general counseling?
A. Permanently discontinue the medication
B. Take the missed pill as soon as remembered and continue the schedule
C. Skip the remainder of the pack
D. Double every remaining dose
Correct Answer: B. Take the missed pill as soon as remembered and continue
the schedule
Rationale: For a single missed active pill, the recommendation is to take it as soon as
, remembered and continue the rest of the pack on schedule. Backup contraception is
generally not required for a single missed pill.
Question 12. What is Goodell's sign?
A. Cervical softening that happens around four weeks of pregnancy
B. Bluish coloration of the vagina and cervix
C. Palpation of the fetus
D. Ultrasound visualization of the fetus
Correct Answer: A. Cervical softening that happens around four weeks of
pregnancy
Rationale: Goodell's sign is the softening of the cervix that occurs early in pregnancy,
around four weeks' gestation. It is a probable sign of pregnancy.
Question 13. What is Chadwick's sign?
A. Cervical softening
B. Bluish coloration of the vagina and cervix at 6 to 8 weeks during pregnancy
C. Fetal heart tones
D. Positive pregnancy test
Correct Answer: B. Bluish coloration of the vagina and cervix at 6 to 8 weeks
during pregnancy
Rationale: Chadwick's sign is a bluish discoloration of the cervix, vagina, and labia that
occurs at 6 to 8 weeks of pregnancy due to increased vascularity. It is a probable sign
of pregnancy.
Question 14. Where is the fundus at 12 weeks gestation?
A. At the level of the symphysis pubis
B. Between symphysis pubis and umbilicus
C. At the level of the umbilicus
D. Above the umbilicus
Correct Answer: A. At the level of the symphysis pubis
Rationale: At 12 weeks' gestation, the uterine fundus is typically palpable at the level of
the symphysis pubis.
Question 15. Where is the fundus at 16 weeks gestation?
A. At the level of the symphysis pubis
B. Between symphysis pubis and umbilicus
C. At the level of the umbilicus
D. Above the umbilicus
Correct Answer: B. Between symphysis pubis and umbilicus
Rationale: At 16 weeks' gestation, the fundus is located midway between the symphysis
pubis and the umbilicus.
Question 16. What is Naegele's rule?
A. Subtract three months, add seven days, then add one year to the last menstrual
CHILDREARING FAMILY MIDTERM EXAM
2026/2027 | 150 VERIFIED QUESTIONS &
ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES |
CHAMBERLAIN FNP PREP | INSTANT
DOWNLOAD
Domain 1: Antepartum and Prenatal Care Management
Question 1. During a client's first prenatal visit, she reports amenorrhea, nausea, and
breast tenderness. The nurse documents these findings as which category of
pregnancy signs?
A. Positive signs
B. Probable signs
C. Presumptive signs
D. Diagnostic signs
Correct Answer: C. Presumptive signs
Rationale: Presumptive signs are subjective symptoms reported by the client, such as
amenorrhea, nausea, breast changes, and fatigue. They suggest but do not confirm
pregnancy, as they can be caused by other conditions.
Question 2. A nurse palpates the uterine fundus at the level of the umbilicus. The
nurse estimates the gestational age to be approximately:
A. 12 weeks
B. 16 weeks
C. 20 weeks
D. 24 weeks
Correct Answer: C. 20 weeks
Rationale: A fundal height at the level of the umbilicus is a classic landmark for 20
weeks' gestation. At 12 weeks, the fundus is at the symphysis pubis. At 16 weeks, it is
midway between the symphysis pubis and umbilicus.
Question 3. A client's last menstrual period (LMP) began on May 10. Using Naegele's
rule, what is the client's estimated date of delivery (EDD)?
A. February 3
B. February 17
C. February 20
,D. February 24
Correct Answer: B. February 17
Rationale: Naegele's rule: Add 7 days (May 17), subtract 3 months (February 17), and
add 1 year if necessary.
Question 4. A client inquires about the most effective reversible contraceptive
method. The nurse should recommend a method from which tier?
A. Tier 1
B. Tier 2
C. Tier 3
D. Tier 4
Correct Answer: A. Tier 1
Rationale: Tier 1 contraceptives (e.g., IUDs, implants, sterilization) have the lowest
failure rates (<1%) and are considered the most effective reversible methods.
Question 5. During a pelvic assessment, the nurse notes the inlet is oval and the side
walls are straight. This description is most consistent with which pelvic type?
A. Android
B. Anthropoid
C. Gynecoid
D. Platypelloid
Correct Answer: C. Gynecoid
Rationale: The gynecoid pelvis has a rounded, oval inlet and straight side walls. It is the
most common and favorable pelvic type for vaginal birth.
Question 6. The nurse is teaching a client about the menstrual cycle. Which
hormone is primarily responsible for stimulating the growth of the ovarian follicle
during the follicular phase?
A. Estrogen
B. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
C. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
D. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
Correct Answer: B. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
Rationale: FSH, released from the anterior pituitary, directly targets the ovaries to
stimulate follicular growth and maturation during the follicular phase.
Question 7. A surge in which hormone is the direct trigger for ovulation?
A. Estrogen
B. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
C. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
D. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
Correct Answer: D. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
Rationale: A sharp surge in LH from the anterior pituitary triggers ovulation, typically
about 36 hours after the surge begins.
,Question 8. Which hormone is primarily responsible for maintaining the endometrial
lining during the luteal phase?
A. Follicle-stimulating hormone
B. Luteinizing hormone
C. Estrogen
D. Progesterone
Correct Answer: D. Progesterone
Rationale: After ovulation, the corpus luteum produces progesterone. Progesterone
stabilizes and prepares the endometrium for possible implantation and supports early
pregnancy until placental hormone production becomes established.
Question 9. A patient wants to prevent pregnancy and asks about highly effective
reversible contraception. Which option is classified as a long-acting reversible
contraceptive?
A. Combined oral contraceptive
B. Condoms
C. Intrauterine device
D. Fertility-awareness method
Correct Answer: C. Intrauterine device
Rationale: Intrauterine devices and contraceptive implants are long-acting reversible
contraceptives. They provide highly effective pregnancy prevention without requiring
daily adherence.
Question 10. Which history finding is most important before prescribing an
estrogen-containing combined hormonal contraceptive?
A. Seasonal allergies
B. Migraine with aura
C. Occasional dysmenorrhea
D. Family history of acne
Correct Answer: B. Migraine with aura
Rationale: Estrogen-containing contraception is generally avoided in patients with
migraine with aura because of the increased risk of ischemic stroke. A careful
cardiovascular and thrombotic-risk history is essential before prescribing estrogen-
containing methods.
Question 11. A patient taking combined oral contraceptives asks what to do if she
misses one active pill. What is the best general counseling?
A. Permanently discontinue the medication
B. Take the missed pill as soon as remembered and continue the schedule
C. Skip the remainder of the pack
D. Double every remaining dose
Correct Answer: B. Take the missed pill as soon as remembered and continue
the schedule
Rationale: For a single missed active pill, the recommendation is to take it as soon as
, remembered and continue the rest of the pack on schedule. Backup contraception is
generally not required for a single missed pill.
Question 12. What is Goodell's sign?
A. Cervical softening that happens around four weeks of pregnancy
B. Bluish coloration of the vagina and cervix
C. Palpation of the fetus
D. Ultrasound visualization of the fetus
Correct Answer: A. Cervical softening that happens around four weeks of
pregnancy
Rationale: Goodell's sign is the softening of the cervix that occurs early in pregnancy,
around four weeks' gestation. It is a probable sign of pregnancy.
Question 13. What is Chadwick's sign?
A. Cervical softening
B. Bluish coloration of the vagina and cervix at 6 to 8 weeks during pregnancy
C. Fetal heart tones
D. Positive pregnancy test
Correct Answer: B. Bluish coloration of the vagina and cervix at 6 to 8 weeks
during pregnancy
Rationale: Chadwick's sign is a bluish discoloration of the cervix, vagina, and labia that
occurs at 6 to 8 weeks of pregnancy due to increased vascularity. It is a probable sign
of pregnancy.
Question 14. Where is the fundus at 12 weeks gestation?
A. At the level of the symphysis pubis
B. Between symphysis pubis and umbilicus
C. At the level of the umbilicus
D. Above the umbilicus
Correct Answer: A. At the level of the symphysis pubis
Rationale: At 12 weeks' gestation, the uterine fundus is typically palpable at the level of
the symphysis pubis.
Question 15. Where is the fundus at 16 weeks gestation?
A. At the level of the symphysis pubis
B. Between symphysis pubis and umbilicus
C. At the level of the umbilicus
D. Above the umbilicus
Correct Answer: B. Between symphysis pubis and umbilicus
Rationale: At 16 weeks' gestation, the fundus is located midway between the symphysis
pubis and the umbilicus.
Question 16. What is Naegele's rule?
A. Subtract three months, add seven days, then add one year to the last menstrual
