RASMUSSEN UNIVERSITY
Multidimensional Care III (MDC 3)
NUR 2502 — Exam 1
Multidimensional Care III
INSTITUTION Rasmussen University
PROGRAM Bachelor of Science in Nursing
EXAM TITLE NUR 2502 Multidimensional Care III Examination 1 - 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
COURSE TITLE Multidimensional Care III (MDC 3)
COURSE CODE NUR 2502
ACADEMIC YEAR 2026/2027
TOTAL QUESTIONS 150 Questions
NUR 2502 | 2026/2027
NUR 2502 Multidimensional Care III Examination 1 - 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
,INTRODUCTION
This document contains 150 original verified questions that comprehensively address the full NUR 2502
Examination 1 for the 2026/2027 academic year. The questions are organized across five core domains aligned
with the official Rasmussen University Multidimensional Care III curriculum: Domain 1 – Cardiovascular
Disorders & Management; Domain 2 – Hematologic Disorders & Management; Domain 3 – Peripheral Vascular
Disorders; Domain 4 – Cardiac Procedures & Emergency Management; and Domain 5 – Integrated Clinical
Judgment & Prioritization. Content is original and designed to reinforce the official NUR 2502 course objectives
for actual exam readiness and multidimensional care proficiency for professional nursing candidates.
ACTUAL QUESTIONS
Domain 1: Cardiovascular Disorders & Management
Question 1. A client with left-sided heart failure is most likely to exhibit which assessment
finding?
A. Dyspnea, orthopnea, and bilateral crackles in the lung bases
B. Peripheral edema and jugular venous distention only
C. Bradycardia and hypothermia
D. Increased appetite without respiratory symptoms
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Left-sided heart failure produces pulmonary congestion, leading to dyspnea, orthopnea, and
crackles. Right-sided failure more typically causes systemic venous congestion.
Question 2. The priority medication to administer first in the MONA protocol for suspected acute
myocardial infarction is:
A. Intravenous morphine before any other agent
B. Chewable aspirin 325 mg to inhibit platelet aggregation
C. Oxygen at 15 L/min by non-rebreather for every client
D. Sublingual nitroglycerin without assessing blood pressure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Aspirin is given immediately because rapid antiplatelet effect reduces infarct size and mortality.
Other MONA components are administered according to clinical need and vital signs.
Question 3. ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF is most consistent with myocardial
infarction in which territory?
A. Inferior wall
B. Anterior wall
C. Lateral wall
D. Posterior wall only
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Leads II, III, and aVF view the inferior surface of the heart, typically supplied by the right coronary
artery.
Question 4. Which laboratory value is most specific for detecting myocardial injury?
A. CK-MB only
B. Troponin I or T
C. Myoglobin alone
D. BNP exclusively
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cardiac troponins are highly specific for myocardial necrosis and remain elevated longer than CK-
MB.
NUR 2502 Multidimensional Care III Examination 1 - 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
,Question 5. A client with atrial fibrillation and a CHA₂DS₂-VASc score of 3 should be considered
for which therapy?
A. Aspirin alone without anticoagulation
B. No antithrombotic therapy
C. Oral anticoagulation for stroke prevention
D. Dual antiplatelet therapy without anticoagulant
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A CHA₂DS₂-VASc score ≥2 in men or ≥3 in women indicates elevated stroke risk; guidelines
recommend oral anticoagulation unless contraindicated.
Question 6. Which finding indicates that a client with heart failure is responding to intravenous
furosemide?
A. Rising weight and worsening orthopnea
B. Decreased blood pressure with no change in respiratory status
C. Increased jugular venous distention
D. Increased urine output, decreased dyspnea, and reduction in crackles
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Loop diuretics reduce preload by promoting diuresis; clinical improvement is evidenced by increased
urine output and relief of pulmonary congestion.
Question 7. A client with a potassium level of 5.6 mEq/L is scheduled to receive spironolactone.
The appropriate nursing action is to:
A. Hold the dose and notify the provider
B. Administer the dose as ordered
C. Give an extra dose to lower potassium
D. Dilute the dose in juice and administer
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Spironolactone is potassium-sparing; administration in the setting of hyperkalemia can further
elevate potassium and produce cardiac arrhythmias.
Question 8. Carvedilol is prescribed for a client with heart failure primarily because it:
A. Increases heart rate and contractility
B. Reduces heart rate and myocardial oxygen demand and has been shown to decrease mortality
C. Acts solely as a diuretic
D. Has no effect on mortality
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Evidence-based beta-blockers such as carvedilol improve survival in heart failure with reduced
ejection fraction by decreasing sympathetic drive.
Question 9. BNP is useful in the assessment of dyspnea because:
A. Low BNP always confirms pneumonia
B. BNP is specific only for renal failure
C. Elevated BNP supports the diagnosis of heart failure as a cause of the dyspnea
D. Normal BNP excludes all cardiac disease
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: BNP is released in response to ventricular wall stretch; levels >100 pg/mL are consistent with heart
failure.
Question 10. Which position is most appropriate for a client with acute pulmonary edema?
A. Trendelenburg position
B. Flat supine
C. Prone
NUR 2502 Multidimensional Care III Examination 1 - 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
, D. High Fowler’s position with legs dependent if tolerated
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Upright positioning reduces venous return and improves respiratory mechanics, relieving dyspnea
in acute pulmonary edema.
Question 11. A client develops sudden chest pain, dyspnea, and a feeling of impending doom after
a long flight. The nurse suspects:
A. Pulmonary embolism
B. Simple anxiety attack without organic cause
C. Chronic stable angina only
D. Gastroesophageal reflux
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Immobility during travel predisposes to venous thrombosis; sudden embolization produces acute
dyspnea, chest pain, and anxiety.
Question 12. Which electrocardiographic change is most characteristic of myocardial ischemia?
A. Presence of Q waves only
B. ST-segment depression or T-wave inversion
C. Prolonged PR interval exclusively
D. Peaked T waves without ST change
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Subendocardial ischemia typically produces ST depression and/or T-wave inversion; ST elevation
indicates acute injury.
Question 13. A client with hypertension is started on lisinopril. The nurse monitors for which
common adverse effect?
A. Excessive salivation
B. Weight gain of 10 kg in one week
C. Persistent dry cough
D. Hyperglycemia exclusively
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: ACE inhibitors cause a dry, persistent cough in a subset of clients due to accumulation of bradykinin.
Question 14. Which assessment finding is most consistent with right-sided heart failure?
A. Pulmonary crackles and orthopnea only
B. Hypertension without edema
C. Decreased jugular venous pressure
D. Peripheral edema, jugular venous distention, and hepatomegaly
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Right-sided failure leads to systemic venous congestion, producing dependent edema, elevated JVP,
and hepatic congestion.
Question 15. Nitroglycerin is contraindicated or used with extreme caution in a client who has
recently taken which medication?
A. A phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor such as sildenafil
B. Acetaminophen
C. A statin
D. A proton-pump inhibitor
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Concurrent use of nitrates and PDE-5 inhibitors can produce profound, life-threatening hypotension.
Question 16. Which rhythm requires immediate defibrillation if the client is pulseless?
NUR 2502 Multidimensional Care III Examination 1 - 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
Multidimensional Care III (MDC 3)
NUR 2502 — Exam 1
Multidimensional Care III
INSTITUTION Rasmussen University
PROGRAM Bachelor of Science in Nursing
EXAM TITLE NUR 2502 Multidimensional Care III Examination 1 - 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
COURSE TITLE Multidimensional Care III (MDC 3)
COURSE CODE NUR 2502
ACADEMIC YEAR 2026/2027
TOTAL QUESTIONS 150 Questions
NUR 2502 | 2026/2027
NUR 2502 Multidimensional Care III Examination 1 - 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
,INTRODUCTION
This document contains 150 original verified questions that comprehensively address the full NUR 2502
Examination 1 for the 2026/2027 academic year. The questions are organized across five core domains aligned
with the official Rasmussen University Multidimensional Care III curriculum: Domain 1 – Cardiovascular
Disorders & Management; Domain 2 – Hematologic Disorders & Management; Domain 3 – Peripheral Vascular
Disorders; Domain 4 – Cardiac Procedures & Emergency Management; and Domain 5 – Integrated Clinical
Judgment & Prioritization. Content is original and designed to reinforce the official NUR 2502 course objectives
for actual exam readiness and multidimensional care proficiency for professional nursing candidates.
ACTUAL QUESTIONS
Domain 1: Cardiovascular Disorders & Management
Question 1. A client with left-sided heart failure is most likely to exhibit which assessment
finding?
A. Dyspnea, orthopnea, and bilateral crackles in the lung bases
B. Peripheral edema and jugular venous distention only
C. Bradycardia and hypothermia
D. Increased appetite without respiratory symptoms
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Left-sided heart failure produces pulmonary congestion, leading to dyspnea, orthopnea, and
crackles. Right-sided failure more typically causes systemic venous congestion.
Question 2. The priority medication to administer first in the MONA protocol for suspected acute
myocardial infarction is:
A. Intravenous morphine before any other agent
B. Chewable aspirin 325 mg to inhibit platelet aggregation
C. Oxygen at 15 L/min by non-rebreather for every client
D. Sublingual nitroglycerin without assessing blood pressure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Aspirin is given immediately because rapid antiplatelet effect reduces infarct size and mortality.
Other MONA components are administered according to clinical need and vital signs.
Question 3. ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF is most consistent with myocardial
infarction in which territory?
A. Inferior wall
B. Anterior wall
C. Lateral wall
D. Posterior wall only
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Leads II, III, and aVF view the inferior surface of the heart, typically supplied by the right coronary
artery.
Question 4. Which laboratory value is most specific for detecting myocardial injury?
A. CK-MB only
B. Troponin I or T
C. Myoglobin alone
D. BNP exclusively
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cardiac troponins are highly specific for myocardial necrosis and remain elevated longer than CK-
MB.
NUR 2502 Multidimensional Care III Examination 1 - 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
,Question 5. A client with atrial fibrillation and a CHA₂DS₂-VASc score of 3 should be considered
for which therapy?
A. Aspirin alone without anticoagulation
B. No antithrombotic therapy
C. Oral anticoagulation for stroke prevention
D. Dual antiplatelet therapy without anticoagulant
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A CHA₂DS₂-VASc score ≥2 in men or ≥3 in women indicates elevated stroke risk; guidelines
recommend oral anticoagulation unless contraindicated.
Question 6. Which finding indicates that a client with heart failure is responding to intravenous
furosemide?
A. Rising weight and worsening orthopnea
B. Decreased blood pressure with no change in respiratory status
C. Increased jugular venous distention
D. Increased urine output, decreased dyspnea, and reduction in crackles
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Loop diuretics reduce preload by promoting diuresis; clinical improvement is evidenced by increased
urine output and relief of pulmonary congestion.
Question 7. A client with a potassium level of 5.6 mEq/L is scheduled to receive spironolactone.
The appropriate nursing action is to:
A. Hold the dose and notify the provider
B. Administer the dose as ordered
C. Give an extra dose to lower potassium
D. Dilute the dose in juice and administer
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Spironolactone is potassium-sparing; administration in the setting of hyperkalemia can further
elevate potassium and produce cardiac arrhythmias.
Question 8. Carvedilol is prescribed for a client with heart failure primarily because it:
A. Increases heart rate and contractility
B. Reduces heart rate and myocardial oxygen demand and has been shown to decrease mortality
C. Acts solely as a diuretic
D. Has no effect on mortality
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Evidence-based beta-blockers such as carvedilol improve survival in heart failure with reduced
ejection fraction by decreasing sympathetic drive.
Question 9. BNP is useful in the assessment of dyspnea because:
A. Low BNP always confirms pneumonia
B. BNP is specific only for renal failure
C. Elevated BNP supports the diagnosis of heart failure as a cause of the dyspnea
D. Normal BNP excludes all cardiac disease
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: BNP is released in response to ventricular wall stretch; levels >100 pg/mL are consistent with heart
failure.
Question 10. Which position is most appropriate for a client with acute pulmonary edema?
A. Trendelenburg position
B. Flat supine
C. Prone
NUR 2502 Multidimensional Care III Examination 1 - 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
, D. High Fowler’s position with legs dependent if tolerated
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Upright positioning reduces venous return and improves respiratory mechanics, relieving dyspnea
in acute pulmonary edema.
Question 11. A client develops sudden chest pain, dyspnea, and a feeling of impending doom after
a long flight. The nurse suspects:
A. Pulmonary embolism
B. Simple anxiety attack without organic cause
C. Chronic stable angina only
D. Gastroesophageal reflux
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Immobility during travel predisposes to venous thrombosis; sudden embolization produces acute
dyspnea, chest pain, and anxiety.
Question 12. Which electrocardiographic change is most characteristic of myocardial ischemia?
A. Presence of Q waves only
B. ST-segment depression or T-wave inversion
C. Prolonged PR interval exclusively
D. Peaked T waves without ST change
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Subendocardial ischemia typically produces ST depression and/or T-wave inversion; ST elevation
indicates acute injury.
Question 13. A client with hypertension is started on lisinopril. The nurse monitors for which
common adverse effect?
A. Excessive salivation
B. Weight gain of 10 kg in one week
C. Persistent dry cough
D. Hyperglycemia exclusively
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: ACE inhibitors cause a dry, persistent cough in a subset of clients due to accumulation of bradykinin.
Question 14. Which assessment finding is most consistent with right-sided heart failure?
A. Pulmonary crackles and orthopnea only
B. Hypertension without edema
C. Decreased jugular venous pressure
D. Peripheral edema, jugular venous distention, and hepatomegaly
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Right-sided failure leads to systemic venous congestion, producing dependent edema, elevated JVP,
and hepatic congestion.
Question 15. Nitroglycerin is contraindicated or used with extreme caution in a client who has
recently taken which medication?
A. A phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor such as sildenafil
B. Acetaminophen
C. A statin
D. A proton-pump inhibitor
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Concurrent use of nitrates and PDE-5 inhibitors can produce profound, life-threatening hypotension.
Question 16. Which rhythm requires immediate defibrillation if the client is pulseless?
NUR 2502 Multidimensional Care III Examination 1 - 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
