RASMUSSEN UNIVERSITY
Multidimensional Care III (MDC 3)
NUR 2502 — Exams 1-2 & Final
Multidimensional Care III
INSTITUTION | Rasmussen University
PROGRAM | Bachelor of Science in Nursing
EXAM TITLE | NUR 2502 Multidimensional Care III Examinations 1-2 & Final Bundle 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
COURSE TITLE | Multidimensional Care III (MDC 3)
COURSE CODE | NUR 2502
ACADEMIC YEAR | 2026/2027
TOTAL QUESTIONS | 450 Questions
NUR 2502 | 2026/2027
NUR 2502 Multidimensional Care III Examinations 1-2 & Final Bundle 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
,INTRODUCTION
This comprehensive document contains 450 original verified questions covering the full NUR 2502
Multidimensional Care III Examinations 1-2 & Final Bundle for the 2026/2027 academic year. The questions are
distributed across three core domains: Domain 1: Exam 1 - Cardiovascular & Hematologic Disorders (150
questions); Domain 2: Exam 2 - Respiratory, Urinary & Renal Disorders (150 questions); and Domain 3: Final
Exam - Reproductive, Integrated & Complex Multisystem Care (150 questions). Content is original and designed
to reinforce the official NUR 2502 course objectives for actual exam readiness and multidimensional care
proficiency, aligned to the 2026/2027 academic year. Questions integrate assessment priorities, complication
recognition, medication management, and clinical judgment to support professional nursing candidates in
developing comprehensive medical-surgical competence.
ACTUAL QUESTIONS
Domain 1: Exam 1 - Cardiovascular & Hematologic Disorders
Question 1. A client with heart failure has a BNP greater than 100 pg/mL and reports orthopnea.
Which intervention is the priority?
A. Administer a fluid bolus
B. Encourage the client to lie flat
C. Restrict all fluid intake without provider order
D. Administer IV furosemide and place the client in high Fowler position
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Elevated BNP with orthopnea indicates fluid overload; diuresis and upright positioning reduce
pulmonary congestion.
Question 2. Which medication is a beta-blocker that reduces mortality in heart failure by
decreasing heart rate and myocardial oxygen demand?
A. Carvedilol
B. Furosemide
C. Digoxin
D. Lisinopril only
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Carvedilol is an evidence-based beta-blocker used to reduce mortality in heart failure.
Question 3. In the initial management of acute myocardial infarction, which medication is given
first to inhibit platelet aggregation?
A. IV beta-blocker only
B. IV morphine only
C. Sublingual nitroglycerin only
D. Chewable aspirin 325 mg
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Chewable aspirin is given early to inhibit platelet aggregation and limit thrombus progression.
Question 4. ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF is most consistent with:
A. Inferior wall STEMI
B. Anterior wall STEMI
C. Lateral wall STEMI
D. Posterior wall STEMI only
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Leads II, III, and aVF view the inferior wall of the left ventricle.
Question 5. The classic symptom of peripheral arterial disease is:
A. Painless swelling only
B. Edema that worsens with elevation
C. Warm, erythematous legs
NUR 2502 Multidimensional Care III Examinations 1-2 & Final Bundle 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
, D. Intermittent claudication (pain with walking relieved by rest)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Intermittent claudication is exertional leg pain from arterial insufficiency that is relieved by rest.
Question 6. A client with atrial fibrillation and a CHA2DS2-VASc score of 3 should receive which
therapy for stroke prevention?
A. No antithrombotic therapy
B. Aspirin only
C. Oral anticoagulation such as warfarin or a direct oral anticoagulant
D. Only dual antiplatelet therapy without anticoagulation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A CHA2DS2-VASc score of 2 or higher generally warrants oral anticoagulation for stroke
prevention.
Question 7. Which laboratory value is monitored for unfractionated heparin therapy?
A. aPTT
B. INR
C. Serum potassium only
D. Hemoglobin only
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: aPTT is the standard monitoring parameter for unfractionated heparin.
Question 8. Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia is suggested by:
A. Elevated INR only
B. A gradual rise in platelets
C. Only mild bruising without platelet change
D. A platelet drop of more than 50 percent with new thrombosis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: HIT involves a significant platelet decline often accompanied by thrombotic events.
Question 9. A client taking spironolactone has a potassium of 5.5 mEq/L. The nurse should:
A. Encourage high-potassium foods
B. Administer an extra dose
C. Hold the spironolactone and notify the provider
D. Ignore the value
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Spironolactone is potassium-sparing; hyperkalemia requires holding the drug and notifying the
provider.
Question 10. Which finding is consistent with left-sided heart failure?
A. Only hepatomegaly
B. Peripheral edema and jugular venous distention only
C. Only ascites
D. Dyspnea, orthopnea, and crackles
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Left-sided failure produces pulmonary congestion with dyspnea and crackles.
Question 11. Which finding is consistent with right-sided heart failure?
A. Peripheral edema, elevated JVP, and hepatomegaly
B. Pulmonary crackles only
C. Only orthopnea
D. Clear lungs and normal JVP
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Right-sided failure produces systemic venous congestion.
NUR 2502 Multidimensional Care III Examinations 1-2 & Final Bundle 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
, Question 12. Which statement about digoxin toxicity is accurate?
A. Toxicity has no visual symptoms
B. Toxicity produces only hypertension
C. Nausea, visual changes such as yellow halos, and arrhythmias may occur, especially with hypokalemia
D. Hypokalemia protects against toxicity
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Digoxin toxicity includes gastrointestinal and visual symptoms and is potentiated by hypokalemia.
Question 13. Which intervention is appropriate for a client with acute pulmonary edema?
A. Flat positioning and fluid bolus
B. High Fowler position, oxygen, and rapid-acting diuretic as ordered
C. Encouraging oral fluids
D. Restricting oxygen
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Upright positioning, oxygen, and diuresis reduce pulmonary congestion.
Question 14. Which finding suggests deep vein thrombosis?
A. Only calf muscle fatigue with exercise
B. Bilateral symmetric mild edema only
C. Painless bilateral cool extremities
D. Unilateral leg swelling, pain, and warmth
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Unilateral swelling, pain, and warmth raise concern for DVT.
Question 15. Which laboratory value is monitored for warfarin therapy?
A. Platelet count only
B. aPTT
C. INR
D. Serum creatinine only
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: INR is the standard monitoring parameter for warfarin.
Question 16. Which finding is consistent with anemia?
A. Fatigue, pallor, and tachycardia
B. Ruddy complexion and bradycardia
C. Only elevated blood pressure
D. Only weight gain
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Anemia reduces oxygen-carrying capacity and produces compensatory tachycardia and fatigue.
Question 17. Which blood product is typically given for active bleeding with coagulopathy?
A. Albumin only
B. Packed red blood cells only
C. Platelets only for all bleeding
D. Fresh frozen plasma or specific clotting factor products as indicated
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: FFP or factor concentrates address coagulopathy; product selection depends on the specific
deficiency.
Question 18. Which statement about nitroglycerin for angina is accurate?
A. It increases preload
B. It reduces preload and may cause headache and hypotension
C. It has no effect on blood pressure
D. It is given only intravenously
NUR 2502 Multidimensional Care III Examinations 1-2 & Final Bundle 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
Multidimensional Care III (MDC 3)
NUR 2502 — Exams 1-2 & Final
Multidimensional Care III
INSTITUTION | Rasmussen University
PROGRAM | Bachelor of Science in Nursing
EXAM TITLE | NUR 2502 Multidimensional Care III Examinations 1-2 & Final Bundle 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
COURSE TITLE | Multidimensional Care III (MDC 3)
COURSE CODE | NUR 2502
ACADEMIC YEAR | 2026/2027
TOTAL QUESTIONS | 450 Questions
NUR 2502 | 2026/2027
NUR 2502 Multidimensional Care III Examinations 1-2 & Final Bundle 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
,INTRODUCTION
This comprehensive document contains 450 original verified questions covering the full NUR 2502
Multidimensional Care III Examinations 1-2 & Final Bundle for the 2026/2027 academic year. The questions are
distributed across three core domains: Domain 1: Exam 1 - Cardiovascular & Hematologic Disorders (150
questions); Domain 2: Exam 2 - Respiratory, Urinary & Renal Disorders (150 questions); and Domain 3: Final
Exam - Reproductive, Integrated & Complex Multisystem Care (150 questions). Content is original and designed
to reinforce the official NUR 2502 course objectives for actual exam readiness and multidimensional care
proficiency, aligned to the 2026/2027 academic year. Questions integrate assessment priorities, complication
recognition, medication management, and clinical judgment to support professional nursing candidates in
developing comprehensive medical-surgical competence.
ACTUAL QUESTIONS
Domain 1: Exam 1 - Cardiovascular & Hematologic Disorders
Question 1. A client with heart failure has a BNP greater than 100 pg/mL and reports orthopnea.
Which intervention is the priority?
A. Administer a fluid bolus
B. Encourage the client to lie flat
C. Restrict all fluid intake without provider order
D. Administer IV furosemide and place the client in high Fowler position
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Elevated BNP with orthopnea indicates fluid overload; diuresis and upright positioning reduce
pulmonary congestion.
Question 2. Which medication is a beta-blocker that reduces mortality in heart failure by
decreasing heart rate and myocardial oxygen demand?
A. Carvedilol
B. Furosemide
C. Digoxin
D. Lisinopril only
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Carvedilol is an evidence-based beta-blocker used to reduce mortality in heart failure.
Question 3. In the initial management of acute myocardial infarction, which medication is given
first to inhibit platelet aggregation?
A. IV beta-blocker only
B. IV morphine only
C. Sublingual nitroglycerin only
D. Chewable aspirin 325 mg
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Chewable aspirin is given early to inhibit platelet aggregation and limit thrombus progression.
Question 4. ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF is most consistent with:
A. Inferior wall STEMI
B. Anterior wall STEMI
C. Lateral wall STEMI
D. Posterior wall STEMI only
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Leads II, III, and aVF view the inferior wall of the left ventricle.
Question 5. The classic symptom of peripheral arterial disease is:
A. Painless swelling only
B. Edema that worsens with elevation
C. Warm, erythematous legs
NUR 2502 Multidimensional Care III Examinations 1-2 & Final Bundle 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
, D. Intermittent claudication (pain with walking relieved by rest)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Intermittent claudication is exertional leg pain from arterial insufficiency that is relieved by rest.
Question 6. A client with atrial fibrillation and a CHA2DS2-VASc score of 3 should receive which
therapy for stroke prevention?
A. No antithrombotic therapy
B. Aspirin only
C. Oral anticoagulation such as warfarin or a direct oral anticoagulant
D. Only dual antiplatelet therapy without anticoagulation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A CHA2DS2-VASc score of 2 or higher generally warrants oral anticoagulation for stroke
prevention.
Question 7. Which laboratory value is monitored for unfractionated heparin therapy?
A. aPTT
B. INR
C. Serum potassium only
D. Hemoglobin only
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: aPTT is the standard monitoring parameter for unfractionated heparin.
Question 8. Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia is suggested by:
A. Elevated INR only
B. A gradual rise in platelets
C. Only mild bruising without platelet change
D. A platelet drop of more than 50 percent with new thrombosis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: HIT involves a significant platelet decline often accompanied by thrombotic events.
Question 9. A client taking spironolactone has a potassium of 5.5 mEq/L. The nurse should:
A. Encourage high-potassium foods
B. Administer an extra dose
C. Hold the spironolactone and notify the provider
D. Ignore the value
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Spironolactone is potassium-sparing; hyperkalemia requires holding the drug and notifying the
provider.
Question 10. Which finding is consistent with left-sided heart failure?
A. Only hepatomegaly
B. Peripheral edema and jugular venous distention only
C. Only ascites
D. Dyspnea, orthopnea, and crackles
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Left-sided failure produces pulmonary congestion with dyspnea and crackles.
Question 11. Which finding is consistent with right-sided heart failure?
A. Peripheral edema, elevated JVP, and hepatomegaly
B. Pulmonary crackles only
C. Only orthopnea
D. Clear lungs and normal JVP
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Right-sided failure produces systemic venous congestion.
NUR 2502 Multidimensional Care III Examinations 1-2 & Final Bundle 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
, Question 12. Which statement about digoxin toxicity is accurate?
A. Toxicity has no visual symptoms
B. Toxicity produces only hypertension
C. Nausea, visual changes such as yellow halos, and arrhythmias may occur, especially with hypokalemia
D. Hypokalemia protects against toxicity
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Digoxin toxicity includes gastrointestinal and visual symptoms and is potentiated by hypokalemia.
Question 13. Which intervention is appropriate for a client with acute pulmonary edema?
A. Flat positioning and fluid bolus
B. High Fowler position, oxygen, and rapid-acting diuretic as ordered
C. Encouraging oral fluids
D. Restricting oxygen
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Upright positioning, oxygen, and diuresis reduce pulmonary congestion.
Question 14. Which finding suggests deep vein thrombosis?
A. Only calf muscle fatigue with exercise
B. Bilateral symmetric mild edema only
C. Painless bilateral cool extremities
D. Unilateral leg swelling, pain, and warmth
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Unilateral swelling, pain, and warmth raise concern for DVT.
Question 15. Which laboratory value is monitored for warfarin therapy?
A. Platelet count only
B. aPTT
C. INR
D. Serum creatinine only
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: INR is the standard monitoring parameter for warfarin.
Question 16. Which finding is consistent with anemia?
A. Fatigue, pallor, and tachycardia
B. Ruddy complexion and bradycardia
C. Only elevated blood pressure
D. Only weight gain
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Anemia reduces oxygen-carrying capacity and produces compensatory tachycardia and fatigue.
Question 17. Which blood product is typically given for active bleeding with coagulopathy?
A. Albumin only
B. Packed red blood cells only
C. Platelets only for all bleeding
D. Fresh frozen plasma or specific clotting factor products as indicated
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: FFP or factor concentrates address coagulopathy; product selection depends on the specific
deficiency.
Question 18. Which statement about nitroglycerin for angina is accurate?
A. It increases preload
B. It reduces preload and may cause headache and hypotension
C. It has no effect on blood pressure
D. It is given only intravenously
NUR 2502 Multidimensional Care III Examinations 1-2 & Final Bundle 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
