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NUR 2513 / NUR 2513 Exam [1 2 3 4] | Rasmussen University | Maternal-Child Nursing Exam Prep + Practice 100 Q&A + Rationales 2026/2027

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NUR 2513 NUR 2513 Exam 1 Exam 2 Exam 3 Exam 4 Maternal-Child Nursing | Questions and Correct Answers with Rationales | Rasmussen University. Master the entire course with this complete NUR 2513 study document covering Exam 1, Exam 2, Exam 3, and Exam 4 for Maternal-Child Nursing at Rasmussen University. Featuring 100 practice questions, correct answers, and detailed rationales per exam, this complete resource is designed for effective study guide revision, test prep, and practice exam testing. Review thorough explanations for every answer to spot weak areas, clarify essential care priorities, and strengthen clinical reasoning across all core maternal, pediatric, and family-centered nursing topics. Perfect for organized test prep and efficient self-testing, this all-in-one guide bridges concept memorization and practical nursing application so you can approach every test with confidence. Download today to begin studying.

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,NUR 2513 Exam 1, 2, 3, 4 Maternal-Child
Nursing | Rasmussen University | 2026/2027
Exam Prep + Practice 100 Q&A +
Rationales
NUR 2513 Exam 1 — Maternal-Child Nursing | Rasmussen University |
2026/2027 Exam Prep + Practice 100 Q&A + Rationales
Q1. A nurse is assessing a client at 10 weeks' gestation. Which finding should the nurse
classify as a positive sign of pregnancy?

A. Amenorrhea

B. Breast tenderness

C. Fetal heart rate detected by Doppler ultrasound

D. Positive urine pregnancy test

Correct Answer: C. Fetal heart rate detected by Doppler ultrasound

Rationale: Positive signs of pregnancy are those that are indisputable evidence of pregnancy,
including fetal heart rate detection by Doppler, fetal movements palpated by a trained
examiner, and ultrasound visualization of the fetus. Amenorrhea and breast tenderness are
presumptive signs. A positive urine pregnancy test detecting hCG is a probable sign because
false positives can occur with conditions such as hydatidiform mole. The nurse should
document the fetal heart rate as a positive sign.

Key Takeaway: Fetal heart rate detection by Doppler is a positive sign of pregnancy.



Q2. A client at 28 weeks' gestation is Rh-negative and has not been sensitized. Which action
should the nurse anticipate?

A. Administer Rho(D) immune globulin at 28 weeks' gestation

B. Administer Rho(D) immune globulin only after delivery if the newborn is Rh-positive

C. Withhold Rho(D) immune globulin because the client is already sensitized

,D. Administer Rho(D) immune globulin at 36 weeks' gestation

Correct Answer: A. Administer Rho(D) immune globulin at 28 weeks' gestation

Rationale: Rho(D) immune globulin is given to Rh-negative mothers at 28 weeks' gestation to
prevent the formation of anti-Rh antibodies that could harm future Rh-positive fetuses. It is
also administered within 72 hours after delivery if the newborn is Rh-positive, after pregnancy
loss, and after invasive procedures. If the client is already sensitized, Rho(D) immune globulin
is not effective. The nurse should verify the client's Rh status and antibody screen before
administration.

Key Takeaway: Rho(D) immune globulin is administered at 28 weeks' gestation to Rh-negative,
unsensitized clients.



Q3. A nurse is calculating the estimated date of delivery for a client whose last menstrual
period began on March 5. Using Naegele's rule, which date should the nurse calculate?

A. December 12

B. November 28

C. December 1

D. November 10

Correct Answer: A. December 12

Rationale: Naegele's rule calculates the estimated date of delivery by subtracting 3 months
from the first day of the last menstrual period, adding 7 days, and adding 1 year. March 5
minus 3 months equals December 5. December 5 plus 7 days equals December 12. November
28 results from adding 7 days incorrectly. December 1 results from an arithmetic error.
November 10 does not follow the correct formula. The nurse should document the estimated
date of delivery as December 12.

Key Takeaway: Naegele's rule: subtract 3 months, add 7 days, and add 1 year to the first day
of the last menstrual period.



Q4. A client at 34 weeks' gestation reports a sudden gush of fluid from the vagina. Which
action should the nurse take first?

A. Perform a sterile speculum examination

B. Assess the fetal heart rate and uterine activity

, C. Obtain a urine specimen for culture

D. Administer antibiotics as prescribed

Correct Answer: B. Assess the fetal heart rate and uterine activity

Rationale: A sudden gush of fluid may indicate premature rupture of membranes. The priority
is to assess the fetal heart rate and uterine activity to evaluate fetal well-being and detect
cord prolapse or infection. A sterile speculum examination confirms rupture of membranes
but is not the first action. Urine culture and antibiotics are important but do not take
precedence over immediate fetal assessment. The nurse should also check the fluid for
pooling, ferning, and nitrazine positivity.

Key Takeaway: Assess fetal heart rate and uterine activity first when premature rupture of
membranes is suspected.



Q5. A client at 38 weeks' gestation is admitted in active labor. The nurse notes a pattern of
contractions every 2 to 3 minutes, lasting 60 seconds, with intense pain. Which phase of labor
is the client most likely experiencing?

A. Latent phase

B. Active phase

C. Transition phase

D. Second stage

Correct Answer: C. Transition phase

Rationale: The transition phase is characterized by contractions every 2 to 3 minutes, lasting
60 to 90 seconds, with intense pain. The cervix dilates from 8 to 10 cm. The latent phase has
contractions every 5 to 10 minutes, lasting 30 to 45 seconds. The active phase has
contractions every 3 to 5 minutes, lasting 40 to 60 seconds. The second stage begins at full
dilation and ends with birth. The nurse should provide support and monitor for signs of
imminent birth.

Key Takeaway: Transition phase contractions are every 2 to 3 minutes, lasting 60 to 90
seconds, with intense pain.

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