RASMUSSEN UNIVERSITY
Multidimensional Care III (MDC 3)
NUR 2502 — Exam 2 Review
Multidimensional Care III
INSTITUTION Rasmussen University
PROGRAM Bachelor of Science in Nursing
EXAM TITLE NUR 2502 Multidimensional Care III Examination 2 - 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
COURSE TITLE Multidimensional Care III (MDC 3)
COURSE CODE NUR 2502
ACADEMIC YEAR 2026/2027
TOTAL QUESTIONS 150 Questions
NUR 2502 | 2026/2027
NUR 2502 Multidimensional Care III Examination 2 - 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
,INTRODUCTION
This document contains 150 original verified questions that comprehensively address the full NUR 2502
Examination 2 for the 2026/2027 academic year. The questions are organized across five core domains aligned
with the official Rasmussen University Multidimensional Care III curriculum: Domain 1 – Cardiovascular
Disorders & Management; Domain 2 – Respiratory Disorders & Management; Domain 3 – Urinary & Renal
Disorders; Domain 4 – Reproductive Disorders; and Domain 5 – Integrated Clinical Judgment & Prioritization.
Content is original and designed to reinforce the official NUR 2502 course objectives for actual exam readiness
and multidimensional care proficiency for professional nursing candidates.
ACTUAL QUESTIONS
Domain 1: Cardiovascular Disorders & Management
Question 1. A client with left-sided heart failure is most likely to exhibit which assessment
finding?
A. Dyspnea, orthopnea, and crackles in the lung bases
B. Peripheral edema and jugular venous distention only
C. Bradycardia and hypothermia
D. Increased appetite and weight gain without respiratory symptoms
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Left-sided heart failure produces pulmonary congestion, leading to dyspnea, orthopnea, and
bilateral crackles. Right-sided failure more typically causes systemic venous congestion.
Question 2. The priority medication to administer first in the MONA protocol for a client with
suspected acute myocardial infarction is:
A. Intravenous morphine before any other agent
B. Chewable aspirin 325 mg to inhibit platelet aggregation
C. Oxygen at 15 L/min by non-rebreather for every client
D. Sublingual nitroglycerin without assessing blood pressure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Aspirin is given immediately because rapid antiplatelet effect reduces infarct size and mortality.
Other MONA components are administered according to clinical need and vital signs.
Question 3. ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF is most consistent with myocardial
infarction in which territory?
A. Inferior wall
B. Anterior wall
C. Lateral wall
D. Posterior wall only
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Leads II, III, and aVF view the inferior surface of the heart, typically supplied by the right coronary
artery. Elevation in these leads indicates an inferior STEMI.
Question 4. Which laboratory value is most specific for detecting myocardial injury?
A. CK-MB only
B. Troponin I or T
C. Myoglobin alone
D. BNP exclusively
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cardiac troponins are highly specific for myocardial necrosis and remain elevated longer than CK-
MB, making them the preferred biomarker for diagnosis of myocardial infarction.
NUR 2502 Multidimensional Care III Examination 2 - 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
,Question 5. A client with atrial fibrillation and a CHA₂DS₂-VASc score of 3 should be considered
for which therapy?
A. Aspirin alone without anticoagulation
B. No antithrombotic therapy
C. Oral anticoagulation (e.g., warfarin or a direct oral anticoagulant) for stroke prevention
D. Dual antiplatelet therapy without anticoagulant
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A CHA₂DS₂-VASc score ≥2 in men or ≥3 in women indicates elevated stroke risk, and guidelines
recommend oral anticoagulation unless contraindicated.
Question 6. The classic symptom of peripheral arterial disease is:
A. Bilateral pitting edema of the ankles
B. Continuous rest pain that improves with elevation
C. Warm, erythematous extremities
D. Intermittent claudication—pain in the legs with walking that is relieved by rest
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Intermittent claudication results from ischemia during increased metabolic demand of walking and
resolves with rest, distinguishing it from venous or neuropathic pain.
Question 7. Heparin therapy is monitored using which laboratory test?
A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
B. Prothrombin time / INR only
C. Bleeding time exclusively
D. Platelet count alone
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Unfractionated heparin prolongs the aPTT; therapeutic ranges are typically 1.5–2.5 times the
control value, guiding dose adjustment.
Question 8. A client receiving heparin develops a platelet count drop of more than 50% and a
additional thrombus. The nurse recognizes this as possible:
A. Expected therapeutic effect of heparin
B. Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) and anticipates discontinuation of all heparin products
C. Vitamin K deficiency
D. Warfarin toxicity
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: HIT is an immune-mediated reaction that paradoxically causes thrombosis. All heparin must be
stopped and an alternative anticoagulant started.
Question 9. Which finding indicates that a client with heart failure is responding to intravenous
furosemide?
A. Rising weight and worsening orthopnea
B. Decreased blood pressure with no change in respiratory status
C. Increased urine output, decreased dyspnea, and reduction in crackles
D. Increased jugular venous distention
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Loop diuretics reduce preload by promoting diuresis; clinical improvement is evidenced by increased
urine output and relief of pulmonary congestion.
Question 10. A client with a potassium level of 5.6 mEq/L is scheduled to receive spironolactone.
The appropriate nursing action is to:
A. Administer the dose as ordered
B. Give an extra dose to lower potassium
NUR 2502 Multidimensional Care III Examination 2 - 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
, C. Dilute the dose in juice and administer
D. Hold the dose and notify the provider
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Spironolactone is potassium-sparing; administration in the setting of hyperkalemia can further
elevate potassium and produce cardiac arrhythmias.
Question 11. Carvedilol is prescribed for a client with heart failure primarily because it:
A. Reduces heart rate and myocardial oxygen demand and has been shown to decrease mortality
B. Increases heart rate and contractility
C. Acts solely as a diuretic
D. Has no effect on mortality
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Evidence-based beta-blockers such as carvedilol improve survival in heart failure with reduced
ejection fraction by decreasing sympathetic drive and myocardial workload.
Question 12. BNP (B-type natriuretic peptide) is useful in the assessment of dyspnea because:
A. Low BNP always confirms pneumonia
B. Elevated BNP supports the diagnosis of heart failure as a cause of the dyspnea
C. BNP is specific only for renal failure
D. Normal BNP excludes all cardiac disease
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: BNP is released in response to ventricular wall stretch; levels >100 pg/mL are consistent with heart
failure and help differentiate cardiac from pulmonary causes of dyspnea.
Question 13. A client with deep-vein thrombosis is started on warfarin. The nurse teaches that the
therapeutic INR range for most clients is:
A. 0.8 to 1.2
B. 4.0 to 5.0
C. 2.0 to 3.0
D. 1.0 to 1.5
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: For treatment of DVT or atrial fibrillation, the usual target INR is 2.0–3.0. Higher ranges are used
for mechanical valves in some positions.
Question 14. Which position is most appropriate for a client with acute pulmonary edema?
A. Trendelenburg position
B. Flat supine
C. Prone
D. High Fowler’s position with legs dependent if tolerated
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Upright positioning reduces venous return (preload) and improves respiratory mechanics, relieving
dyspnea in acute pulmonary edema.
Question 15. A client develops sudden chest pain, dyspnea, and a feeling of impending doom after
a long flight. The nurse suspects:
A. Pulmonary embolism
B. Simple anxiety attack without organic cause
C. Chronic stable angina only
D. Gastroesophageal reflux
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Immobility during travel predisposes to venous thrombosis; sudden embolization to the lungs
produces acute dyspnea, chest pain, and anxiety.
NUR 2502 Multidimensional Care III Examination 2 - 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
Multidimensional Care III (MDC 3)
NUR 2502 — Exam 2 Review
Multidimensional Care III
INSTITUTION Rasmussen University
PROGRAM Bachelor of Science in Nursing
EXAM TITLE NUR 2502 Multidimensional Care III Examination 2 - 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
COURSE TITLE Multidimensional Care III (MDC 3)
COURSE CODE NUR 2502
ACADEMIC YEAR 2026/2027
TOTAL QUESTIONS 150 Questions
NUR 2502 | 2026/2027
NUR 2502 Multidimensional Care III Examination 2 - 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
,INTRODUCTION
This document contains 150 original verified questions that comprehensively address the full NUR 2502
Examination 2 for the 2026/2027 academic year. The questions are organized across five core domains aligned
with the official Rasmussen University Multidimensional Care III curriculum: Domain 1 – Cardiovascular
Disorders & Management; Domain 2 – Respiratory Disorders & Management; Domain 3 – Urinary & Renal
Disorders; Domain 4 – Reproductive Disorders; and Domain 5 – Integrated Clinical Judgment & Prioritization.
Content is original and designed to reinforce the official NUR 2502 course objectives for actual exam readiness
and multidimensional care proficiency for professional nursing candidates.
ACTUAL QUESTIONS
Domain 1: Cardiovascular Disorders & Management
Question 1. A client with left-sided heart failure is most likely to exhibit which assessment
finding?
A. Dyspnea, orthopnea, and crackles in the lung bases
B. Peripheral edema and jugular venous distention only
C. Bradycardia and hypothermia
D. Increased appetite and weight gain without respiratory symptoms
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Left-sided heart failure produces pulmonary congestion, leading to dyspnea, orthopnea, and
bilateral crackles. Right-sided failure more typically causes systemic venous congestion.
Question 2. The priority medication to administer first in the MONA protocol for a client with
suspected acute myocardial infarction is:
A. Intravenous morphine before any other agent
B. Chewable aspirin 325 mg to inhibit platelet aggregation
C. Oxygen at 15 L/min by non-rebreather for every client
D. Sublingual nitroglycerin without assessing blood pressure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Aspirin is given immediately because rapid antiplatelet effect reduces infarct size and mortality.
Other MONA components are administered according to clinical need and vital signs.
Question 3. ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF is most consistent with myocardial
infarction in which territory?
A. Inferior wall
B. Anterior wall
C. Lateral wall
D. Posterior wall only
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Leads II, III, and aVF view the inferior surface of the heart, typically supplied by the right coronary
artery. Elevation in these leads indicates an inferior STEMI.
Question 4. Which laboratory value is most specific for detecting myocardial injury?
A. CK-MB only
B. Troponin I or T
C. Myoglobin alone
D. BNP exclusively
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cardiac troponins are highly specific for myocardial necrosis and remain elevated longer than CK-
MB, making them the preferred biomarker for diagnosis of myocardial infarction.
NUR 2502 Multidimensional Care III Examination 2 - 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
,Question 5. A client with atrial fibrillation and a CHA₂DS₂-VASc score of 3 should be considered
for which therapy?
A. Aspirin alone without anticoagulation
B. No antithrombotic therapy
C. Oral anticoagulation (e.g., warfarin or a direct oral anticoagulant) for stroke prevention
D. Dual antiplatelet therapy without anticoagulant
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A CHA₂DS₂-VASc score ≥2 in men or ≥3 in women indicates elevated stroke risk, and guidelines
recommend oral anticoagulation unless contraindicated.
Question 6. The classic symptom of peripheral arterial disease is:
A. Bilateral pitting edema of the ankles
B. Continuous rest pain that improves with elevation
C. Warm, erythematous extremities
D. Intermittent claudication—pain in the legs with walking that is relieved by rest
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Intermittent claudication results from ischemia during increased metabolic demand of walking and
resolves with rest, distinguishing it from venous or neuropathic pain.
Question 7. Heparin therapy is monitored using which laboratory test?
A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
B. Prothrombin time / INR only
C. Bleeding time exclusively
D. Platelet count alone
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Unfractionated heparin prolongs the aPTT; therapeutic ranges are typically 1.5–2.5 times the
control value, guiding dose adjustment.
Question 8. A client receiving heparin develops a platelet count drop of more than 50% and a
additional thrombus. The nurse recognizes this as possible:
A. Expected therapeutic effect of heparin
B. Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) and anticipates discontinuation of all heparin products
C. Vitamin K deficiency
D. Warfarin toxicity
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: HIT is an immune-mediated reaction that paradoxically causes thrombosis. All heparin must be
stopped and an alternative anticoagulant started.
Question 9. Which finding indicates that a client with heart failure is responding to intravenous
furosemide?
A. Rising weight and worsening orthopnea
B. Decreased blood pressure with no change in respiratory status
C. Increased urine output, decreased dyspnea, and reduction in crackles
D. Increased jugular venous distention
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Loop diuretics reduce preload by promoting diuresis; clinical improvement is evidenced by increased
urine output and relief of pulmonary congestion.
Question 10. A client with a potassium level of 5.6 mEq/L is scheduled to receive spironolactone.
The appropriate nursing action is to:
A. Administer the dose as ordered
B. Give an extra dose to lower potassium
NUR 2502 Multidimensional Care III Examination 2 - 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
, C. Dilute the dose in juice and administer
D. Hold the dose and notify the provider
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Spironolactone is potassium-sparing; administration in the setting of hyperkalemia can further
elevate potassium and produce cardiac arrhythmias.
Question 11. Carvedilol is prescribed for a client with heart failure primarily because it:
A. Reduces heart rate and myocardial oxygen demand and has been shown to decrease mortality
B. Increases heart rate and contractility
C. Acts solely as a diuretic
D. Has no effect on mortality
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Evidence-based beta-blockers such as carvedilol improve survival in heart failure with reduced
ejection fraction by decreasing sympathetic drive and myocardial workload.
Question 12. BNP (B-type natriuretic peptide) is useful in the assessment of dyspnea because:
A. Low BNP always confirms pneumonia
B. Elevated BNP supports the diagnosis of heart failure as a cause of the dyspnea
C. BNP is specific only for renal failure
D. Normal BNP excludes all cardiac disease
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: BNP is released in response to ventricular wall stretch; levels >100 pg/mL are consistent with heart
failure and help differentiate cardiac from pulmonary causes of dyspnea.
Question 13. A client with deep-vein thrombosis is started on warfarin. The nurse teaches that the
therapeutic INR range for most clients is:
A. 0.8 to 1.2
B. 4.0 to 5.0
C. 2.0 to 3.0
D. 1.0 to 1.5
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: For treatment of DVT or atrial fibrillation, the usual target INR is 2.0–3.0. Higher ranges are used
for mechanical valves in some positions.
Question 14. Which position is most appropriate for a client with acute pulmonary edema?
A. Trendelenburg position
B. Flat supine
C. Prone
D. High Fowler’s position with legs dependent if tolerated
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Upright positioning reduces venous return (preload) and improves respiratory mechanics, relieving
dyspnea in acute pulmonary edema.
Question 15. A client develops sudden chest pain, dyspnea, and a feeling of impending doom after
a long flight. The nurse suspects:
A. Pulmonary embolism
B. Simple anxiety attack without organic cause
C. Chronic stable angina only
D. Gastroesophageal reflux
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Immobility during travel predisposes to venous thrombosis; sudden embolization to the lungs
produces acute dyspnea, chest pain, and anxiety.
NUR 2502 Multidimensional Care III Examination 2 - 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
