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Exam (elaborations)

Hesi Rn 799 Exit Exam |Actual Questions And Verified Answers|Brand New Update|Graded A+

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Hesi Rn 799 Exit Exam |Actual Questions And Verified Answers|Brand New Update|Graded A+

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HESI RN 799 EXIT EXAM |ACTUAL QUESTIONS
AND VERIFIED ANSWERS|BRAND NEW 2026-2027
UPDATE|GRADED A+


Question 1

A client with atrial fibrillation receives a new prescription for dabigatran. What instruction
should the nurse include in this client's teaching plan?



a. Keep an antidote available in the event of hemorrhage

b. Continue obtaining scheduled laboratory bleeding test

c. Eliminate spinach and other green vegetable in the diet.

d. Avoid use of nonsteroidal ant-inflammatory drugs (NSAID).

CORRECT ANSWER

Avoid use of nonsteroidal ant-inflammatory drugs (NSAID).



Rationale: Dabigatran, a directed reversible thrombin inhibitor, is prescribe to reduce the
risk of stroke in client with atrial fibrillation. The risk of bleeding and GI event can be
significant and the concomitant use of NSAID and other anticoagulants should be
avoided.




Question 2

The nurse is making a home visit to a male client who is in the moderate stage of
Alzheimer's diseases. The client's wife is exhausted and tells the nurse that the family
plans to take turns caring for the client in their home, each keeping him for two weeks at a
time. How should the nurse respond?



a. Advise the client's spouse to consider inpatient hospice care as an alternative

b. Suggest that each rotation last one week, rather than two, to prevent caregiver fatigue



1

,c. Use active listening to allow the client and spouse to express their feelings about the plan

d. Suggest enrolling the client in adult daycare instead of rotating among family.

CORRECT ANSWER

b. Suggest enrolling the client in adult daycare instead of rotating among family



Rationale: Suggesting a viable alternative, such as adult daycare provides an option to
allow the spouse respite the least disruption to routines and environment.




Question 3

A young adult male was admitted 36 hours ago for a head injury that occurred as the
result of a motorcycle accident. In the last 4 hours, his urine output has increased to over
200 ml/H. Before reporting the finding to the healthcare provider, which intervention
should the nurse implement?



a- Evaluate the urine osmolality and the serum osmolality values.

b- Obtain blood pressure and assess for dependent edema

c- Measure oral secretions suctioned during last hours

d- Obtain capillary blood samples q2 hours for glucose monitoring.

CORRECT ANSWER

a. Evaluate the urine osmolality and the serum osmolality values.



Rationale: With a known head injury, sudden inadequate secretion of antidiuretic
hormone (ADH) can cause excessive output of diluted urine. Evaluating laboratory results
should de determined to identify findings of neurogenic diabetes insipidus (DI), such as
low urine osmolarity and normal serum osmolarity (A) prior to notify the healthcare
provider so that these finding can be included in the report. Massive diuresis,
dehydration, and thirst manifest hypotension, irregular tachycardia, decrease skin turgor,
but B or C are not related to DI.




2

,Question 4

A male client has received a prescription for orlistat for weight and nutrition management.
In addition to the medication, the client states he plans to take a multivitamin. What
teaching should the nurse provide?



a. As a nutritional supplement, orlistat already contains all the recommended daily vitamins
and minerals.

b. Multivitamins are contraindicated. During treatment with weight-control medications
such as orlistat

c. Be sure to take the multivitamin and the medication at least two hours apart for best
absorption and effectiveness.

d. Following a well-balanced diet is a much healthier approach to good nutrition than
depending on a multivitamin.

CORRECT ANSWER

c. Be sure to take the multivitamin and the medication at least two hours apart for best
absorption and effectiveness




Question 5

A female client is taking alendronate, a bisphosphate, for postmenopausal osteoporosis.
The client tells the nurse that she is experiencing jaw pain. How should the nurse respond?



a- Determine how the client is administering the medication

b- Confirm that this is a common symptom of osteoporosis

c- Report the client's jaw pain to the healthcare provider.

d- Advise the client to gargle with warm salt water twice daily.

CORRECT ANSWER

c. Report the client's jaw pain to the healthcare provider.




3

, Rationale: Bisphosponates, including alendronate, can cause osteonecrosis of jaw, which
should be reported to the healthcare provider © for evaluation. Incorrect administration
(A) such as failing to remain upright after taking the medication, can contribute to
esophageal reactions, but does not causes haw pain. Jaw pain is not a symptom of
osteoporosis and is not relieved with saline throat gargles.




Question 6

Which intervention should the nurse implement for a client with a superficial (first degree)
burn?



a. Spray an anesthetic agent over the burn every 3 to 4 hours

b. Position the burn victim in front of a cool fan to decrease discomfort

c. Apply ice pack for 30 mints to lower surface temperature

d. Place wet clothes on the burned areas for short periods of time.

CORRECT ANSWER

d. Place wet cloths on the burned areas for short periods of time.



Rationale: D provides comfort and helps to relive the pain of a first degree burn, which
involves only the epidermal layer of the skin.




Question 7

What is the primary goal when planning nursing care for a client with degenerative joint
disease (DJD)?



a. Obtain adequate rest and sleep

b. Achieve satisfactory pain control.

c. Improve stress management skills

d. Reduce risk for infection.

4

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