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Comsae Phase 1 Form 114 Actual Exam – 176 Questions And Resolution Results | Verified And Well Detailed Resolution Results | Plus Rationales | Guaranteed Pass | Latest Exam Update | Stuvia Verified | Exam Prep | Study Guide | Practice Test

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Comsae Phase 1 Form 114 Actual Exam – 176 Questions And Resolution Results | Verified And Well Detailed Resolution Results | Plus Rationales | Guaranteed Pass | Latest Exam Update | Stuvia Verified | Exam Prep | Study Guide | Practice Test

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COMSAE PHASE 1 FORM 114 Actual EXAM – 176
QUESTIONS AND RESOLUTION RESULTS | VERIFIED
AND WELL DETAILED RESOLUTION RESULTS | PLUS
RATIONALES | GUARANTEED PASS | LATEST EXAM
UPDATE | STUVIA VERIFIED | EXAM PREP | STUDY
GUIDE | PRACTICE TEST

I understand you are looking for verified questions and Resolution Results for the
COMSAE Phase 1 Form 114 exam. Based on the search results, I can provide a
representative selection of high-yield practice questions that reflect the content and
format of this exam.

Please note: These are practice questions derived from unofficial study resources to
help you prepare effectively, not the actual exam itself. The real COMSAE Phase 1 exam
contains 176 items divided into four sections of 44 questions each in single-best-
Resolution Result format . Questions are drawn from the official NBOME blueprint and
cover Osteopathic Principles & Practice (OPP), general medicine, pathology,
pharmacology, microbiology, and biostatistics .




Section 1: Osteopathic Principles & Practice (OPP)
Question 1
A 45-year-old male presents with low back pain after lifting a box. On examination, the
standing flexion test shows superior movement of the right PSIS. Which somatic
dysfunction is most likely?

A) Right anterior innominate
B) Left posterior innominate
C) Right sacral torsion on a left oblique axis
D) Bilateral innominate rotation

, Correct Resolution Result: A) Right anterior innominate

Rationale: A positive standing flexion test on the right suggests iliosacral dysfunction on
that side. For a right anterior innominate, the right ASIS is positioned more inferiorly,
creating a functional short right leg and a positive standing flexion test on the right .




Question 2
A 30-year-old female with chronic headaches undergoes OMM. You find that the right
mastoid process is posterior and inferior compared to the left. Which somatic
dysfunction best describes this finding?

A) Right rotation, right sidebending (Type I)
B) Left rotation, right sidebending (Type II)
C) Right rotation, left sidebending (Type II)
D) Left rotation, left sidebending (Type I)

Correct Resolution Result: B) Left rotation, right sidebending (Type II)

Rationale: The mastoid process moving posterior indicates rotation to the opposite side.
The mastoid moving inferior indicates sidebending to the same side. Type II mechanics
(non-neutral) involve single vertebral segments where rotation and sidebending occur in
opposite directions. Here, right mastoid is posterior/inferior → Rotation to the left,
sidebending to the right .




Question 3
According to Fryette's first principle (Type I mechanics), when the spine is in a neutral
position, sidebending and rotation occur:

A) To the same side
B) To opposite sides
C) Without rotation
D) Only in the lumbar spine

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