MATERNITY NURSING (NRSC 3302) FINAL EXAM: 100
COMPREHENSIVE EXAM QUESTIONS WITH RATIONALES
1. At 24 weeks' gestation, which assessment would best confirm fetal
well-being?
A. Fetal movement counting
B. Amniocentesis results
C. Fundal height measurement
D. Chorionic villus sampling
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Fetal movement counting is a non-invasive, primary method
for assessing fetal well-being starting in the second trimester.
Amniocentesis and CVS are invasive diagnostic procedures, and fundal
height measures growth, not immediate well-being.
2. Which statement is correct regarding the danger signs of
pregnancy?
A. Occasional headaches are expected and not a concern.
B. Regular, painless vaginal bleeding in the second trimester is normal.
C. Severe abdominal pain may indicate a complication and requires
immediate evaluation.
D. Increased urinary frequency after 20 weeks gestation indicates
preterm labor.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Severe abdominal pain during pregnancy is a danger sign that
could indicate placental abruption, preterm labor, or other serious
,complications requiring immediate evaluation. Painless bleeding is also
a warning sign.
3. What nursing intervention is essential for a neonate born to a
mother with untreated gonorrhea?
A. Administering IV antibiotics immediately.
B. Performing a full sepsis workup.
C. Administering erythromycin eye ointment.
D. Placing the infant in an isolation room.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Erythromycin eye ointment is prophylactically administered
to all newborns to prevent ophthalmia neonatorum, which can be
caused by untreated maternal gonorrhea. It is a required standard of
care.
4. A client in her first trimester reports nausea and vomiting. Which
instruction should the nurse provide?
A. Eat three large meals daily.
B. Drink fluids with meals.
C. Eat dry crackers before rising.
D. Avoid high-carbohydrate snacks.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Eating dry crackers before rising in the morning can help
alleviate morning sickness by absorbing stomach acid. Small, frequent
meals are generally better than three large ones.
5. Which laboratory test is routinely performed at 24 to 28 weeks of
gestation to screen for gestational diabetes?
A. 1-hour glucose tolerance test
B. 3-hour glucose tolerance test
,C. Hemoglobin A1c
D. Fasting blood sugar
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The 1-hour glucose challenge test is the standard screening
tool for gestational diabetes at 24 to 28 weeks. If elevated, it is followed
by the 3-hour diagnostic test.
6. A pregnant client is Rh-negative and the father is Rh-positive. When
should the nurse anticipate administering Rho(D) immune globulin?
A. At 12 weeks and 24 weeks
B. At 28 weeks and within 72 hours postpartum
C. Only after delivery if the newborn is Rh-positive
D. Immediately upon confirmation of pregnancy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rho(D) immune globulin is routinely given at 28 weeks
gestation and within 72 hours after delivery if the newborn is Rh-
positive to prevent maternal sensitization.
7. Which finding indicates a potential complication in the immediate
postpartum period?
A. Lochia rubra
B. A boggy uterus
C. Mild afterpains
D. Diaphoresis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A boggy uterus indicates uterine atony, which is the leading
cause of postpartum hemorrhage. It requires immediate massage and
possibly uterotonic medications.
, 8. A newborn has an APGAR score of 3 at 1 minute. What is the
priority nursing action?
A. Document the score and reassess in 5 minutes.
B. Initiate immediate resuscitation measures.
C. Notify the pediatrician and continue monitoring.
D. Place the newborn skin-to-skin with the mother.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An APGAR score of 3 indicates severe distress and requires
immediate resuscitation, including stimulation, airway management,
and possibly oxygen or ventilation.
9. A client is receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia. Which
assessment finding indicates magnesium toxicity?
A. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg
B. Urine output of 50 mL/hr
C. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min
D. Deep tendon reflexes of 2+
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A respiratory rate below 12 breaths/min is an early sign of
magnesium sulfate toxicity. The antidote is calcium gluconate, and the
infusion must be stopped immediately.
10. Which contraceptive method provides the most effective
protection against sexually transmitted infections?
A. Oral contraceptive pills
B. Intrauterine device
C. Male condom
D. Diaphragm
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Male condoms (and female condoms) are the only
COMPREHENSIVE EXAM QUESTIONS WITH RATIONALES
1. At 24 weeks' gestation, which assessment would best confirm fetal
well-being?
A. Fetal movement counting
B. Amniocentesis results
C. Fundal height measurement
D. Chorionic villus sampling
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Fetal movement counting is a non-invasive, primary method
for assessing fetal well-being starting in the second trimester.
Amniocentesis and CVS are invasive diagnostic procedures, and fundal
height measures growth, not immediate well-being.
2. Which statement is correct regarding the danger signs of
pregnancy?
A. Occasional headaches are expected and not a concern.
B. Regular, painless vaginal bleeding in the second trimester is normal.
C. Severe abdominal pain may indicate a complication and requires
immediate evaluation.
D. Increased urinary frequency after 20 weeks gestation indicates
preterm labor.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Severe abdominal pain during pregnancy is a danger sign that
could indicate placental abruption, preterm labor, or other serious
,complications requiring immediate evaluation. Painless bleeding is also
a warning sign.
3. What nursing intervention is essential for a neonate born to a
mother with untreated gonorrhea?
A. Administering IV antibiotics immediately.
B. Performing a full sepsis workup.
C. Administering erythromycin eye ointment.
D. Placing the infant in an isolation room.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Erythromycin eye ointment is prophylactically administered
to all newborns to prevent ophthalmia neonatorum, which can be
caused by untreated maternal gonorrhea. It is a required standard of
care.
4. A client in her first trimester reports nausea and vomiting. Which
instruction should the nurse provide?
A. Eat three large meals daily.
B. Drink fluids with meals.
C. Eat dry crackers before rising.
D. Avoid high-carbohydrate snacks.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Eating dry crackers before rising in the morning can help
alleviate morning sickness by absorbing stomach acid. Small, frequent
meals are generally better than three large ones.
5. Which laboratory test is routinely performed at 24 to 28 weeks of
gestation to screen for gestational diabetes?
A. 1-hour glucose tolerance test
B. 3-hour glucose tolerance test
,C. Hemoglobin A1c
D. Fasting blood sugar
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The 1-hour glucose challenge test is the standard screening
tool for gestational diabetes at 24 to 28 weeks. If elevated, it is followed
by the 3-hour diagnostic test.
6. A pregnant client is Rh-negative and the father is Rh-positive. When
should the nurse anticipate administering Rho(D) immune globulin?
A. At 12 weeks and 24 weeks
B. At 28 weeks and within 72 hours postpartum
C. Only after delivery if the newborn is Rh-positive
D. Immediately upon confirmation of pregnancy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rho(D) immune globulin is routinely given at 28 weeks
gestation and within 72 hours after delivery if the newborn is Rh-
positive to prevent maternal sensitization.
7. Which finding indicates a potential complication in the immediate
postpartum period?
A. Lochia rubra
B. A boggy uterus
C. Mild afterpains
D. Diaphoresis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A boggy uterus indicates uterine atony, which is the leading
cause of postpartum hemorrhage. It requires immediate massage and
possibly uterotonic medications.
, 8. A newborn has an APGAR score of 3 at 1 minute. What is the
priority nursing action?
A. Document the score and reassess in 5 minutes.
B. Initiate immediate resuscitation measures.
C. Notify the pediatrician and continue monitoring.
D. Place the newborn skin-to-skin with the mother.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An APGAR score of 3 indicates severe distress and requires
immediate resuscitation, including stimulation, airway management,
and possibly oxygen or ventilation.
9. A client is receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia. Which
assessment finding indicates magnesium toxicity?
A. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg
B. Urine output of 50 mL/hr
C. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min
D. Deep tendon reflexes of 2+
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A respiratory rate below 12 breaths/min is an early sign of
magnesium sulfate toxicity. The antidote is calcium gluconate, and the
infusion must be stopped immediately.
10. Which contraceptive method provides the most effective
protection against sexually transmitted infections?
A. Oral contraceptive pills
B. Intrauterine device
C. Male condom
D. Diaphragm
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Male condoms (and female condoms) are the only
