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NUR 209 Medical Surgical Nursing II Exam 2 Review | 100 Q&A Fortis College

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Master Med Surg II with this comprehensive NUR 209 Exam 2 Review. Updated for 2026/2027, this guide features 100 practice questions and detailed rationales. Perfect for Fortis College nursing students!

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NURd209dMedicaldSurgicaldNursingdIIdd|ddExamd2dReviewdd|ddFortisdCollege




Fortis College d




NUR 209 / NUR209 Medical Surgical d d d d d d




Nursing II d




Exam 2 Comprehensive Review (2026/2027 d d d d d




Update)
Name: ______________________ Date: _________________ Score: _______ / 1
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___ __ 00

1. A nurse is caring for a client with left-
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sided heart failure. Which assessment finding should the nurse expect?
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A. Jugular venous dis B. Crackles in the lun C. Hepatome D. Dependent periphera
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tention g bases galy l edema d d




Correct Answer: B d d



Rationale: Left- d



sided heart failure causes backup of blood into the pulmonary circulation, leading to pu
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lmonary congestion manifested as crackles in the lung bases. Jugular venous distention
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, hepatomegaly, and dependent peripheral edema are signs of right-
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sided heart failure due to systemic venous congestion.
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2. A client admitted with an acute myocardial infarction (MI) reports severe substernal
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chest pain unrelieved by nitroglycerin. Which prescribed medication should the nurse a
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dminister first? d




A. Heparin IV bolu B. Morphine sulfate I C. Metoprolol IV pus D. Clopidogrel P
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s V h O

Correct Answer: B d d



Rationale: Morphine sulfate is the first-d d d d d



line analgesic for acute MI pain unrelieved by nitroglycerin because it reduces myocar
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1

, NURd209dMedicaldSurgicaldNursingdIIdd|ddExamd2dReviewdd|ddFortisdCollege

dial oxygen demand by decreasing preload, heart rate, and anxiety. Heparin and clopid
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ogrel are important anticoagulants but do not address pain. Metoprolol reduces heart r
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ate but is not an analgesic and is secondary to pain management in this acute scenario.
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3. The nurse receives morning report on four clients with heart failure. Which client sho
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uld the nurse assess first?
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A. A client with a
d d d d d B. A client with a b C. A client who report D. A client with 1+
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weight gain of 0.5 d d d d lood pressure of 11 s increasing dyspnea pitting edema in bil
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kg over 2 days
d d d 0/70 mmHg when lying flat
d ateral ankles d d d




Correct Answer: C d d



Rationale: Increasing dyspnea when lying flat (orthopnea) indicates worsening pulmo
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nary congestion and is the highest priority because it suggests acute decompensation of
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d heart failure. Weight gain, mild edema, and blood pressure changes are important but l
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ess urgent than acute respiratory compromise. The nurse must assess and intervene for
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the client showing signs of worsening pulmonary edema first.
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4. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide 40 mg IV. Which laboratory valu
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e should the nurse monitor most closely?
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A. Sodium d B. Potassium d C. Calcium d D. Magnesiumd




Correct Answer: B d d



Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes significant loss of potassium throu
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gh increased urinary excretion. Hypokalemia can precipitate life-
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threatening dysrhythmias, especially in clients with heart failure who may already be o
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n digoxin. While sodium, calcium, and magnesium should also be monitored, potassium
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d is the most critical lab value for furosemide therapy.
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5. A client on a cardiac telemetry monitor has a rhythm showing absent P waves, irregul
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ar R-R intervals, and a wavy baseline. The nurse identifies this as which dysrhythmia?
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A. Atrial fibrillatio B. Atrial flutt C. Ventricular tachycard D. Second-
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n er ia degree heart block typ d d d


eI d




Correct Answer: A d d




2

, NURd209dMedicaldSurgicaldNursingdIIdd|ddExamd2dReviewdd|ddFortisdCollege

Rationale: Atrial fibrillation is characterized by absent P waves (replaced by chaotic fi
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brillatory waves producing a wavy baseline), irregular R-
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R intervals, and an irregularly irregular rhythm. Atrial flutter has sawtooth P waves wit
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h a regular ventricular rate. Ventricular tachycardia shows wide QRS complexes witho
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ut P waves. Second-
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degree heart block type I (Wenckebach) shows progressively lengthening PR intervals
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with a dropped QRS. d d d




6. A nurse is delegating care for a client with stable chronic hypertension. Which task is
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most appropriate to assign to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
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A. Teaching the client about a low-
d d d d d d B. Measuring the client's blood pressure
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sodium diet d



C. Evaluating the client's response to D. Adjusting the client's medication dosage bas
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a new antihypertensive
d d d ed on blood pressure readings d d d d




Correct Answer: B d d



Rationale: Measuring blood pressure is a standardized, repetitive task within the UAP
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scope of practice. Teaching, evaluating responses to medications, and adjusting dosage
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s require nursing education and clinical judgment and cannot be delegated to UAP. The
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d nurse retains responsibility for assessment, teaching, and medication management.
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7. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed heparin infusion. The nurse n
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otes the client's aPTT is 45 seconds with a control of 30 seconds. What action should the
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d nurse take? d




A. Increase the heparin infusion rate
d d d d d B. Stop the heparin infusion imme
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diately
C. Continue the current infusion rate and recheck D. Administer protamine sulfate
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in 6 hours d d




Correct Answer: A d d



Rationale: The therapeutic range for aPTT during heparin therapy is typically 1.5 to 2.
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5 times the control value. With a control of 30 seconds, the therapeutic range is 45-
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75 seconds. An aPTT of 45 seconds is at the lower end, suggesting subtherapeutic antic
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oagulation. The nurse should increase the infusion rate per protocol. Stopping heparin
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3

, NURd209dMedicaldSurgicaldNursingdIIdd|ddExamd2dReviewdd|ddFortisdCollege

or giving protamine sulfate is for dangerously elevated aPTT, not subtherapeutic levels
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.

8. A client with peripheral arterial disease (PAD) reports leg pain when walking two blo
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cks that is relieved by rest. The nurse documents this as which finding?
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A. Thromboangiitis
d d B. Intermittent cla C. Chronic venous ins D. Raynaud's phe
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obliterans udication ufficiency nomenon

Correct Answer: B d d



Rationale: Intermittent claudication is the classic symptom of PAD, characterized by p
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ain in the calf or leg muscles during exercise that is relieved by rest. It occurs due to ina
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dequate arterial blood flow to meet increased metabolic demands during activity. Thro
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mboangiitis obliterans (Buerger's disease) and Raynaud's phenomenon involve vasosp
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asm of small vessels. Chronic venous insufficiency presents with ankle edema and stasis
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d changes, not exercise-induced pain.
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9. A client has a new prescription for enoxaparin (Lovenox) following hip replacement
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surgery. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
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A. I will inject the med B. I should report any C. I will take aspi D. I will avoid sha
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ication into my abdom unusual bruising or bl rin daily for pain ving with a straigh
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inal fat d eeding relief t razor d




Correct Answer: C d d



Rationale: The client should avoid concurrent use of aspirin or other NSAIDs with eno
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xaparin because the combination significantly increases bleeding risk. Enoxaparin is a
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low-molecular-
weight heparin, and adding antiplatelet agents like aspirin compounds the anticoagula
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nt effect. Injecting into abdominal fat, reporting bleeding, and avoiding straight razor s
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having are all correct self-management behaviors.
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10. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client with heart failure. The client's
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apical pulse is 52 bpm. What is the nurse's best action?
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A. Administer the B. Hold the digoxin
d d d d d d d C. Administer hal D. Give the digoxin wi
d d d d d d


digoxin as prescrib and notify the provi
d d d d d f the prescribed do th a glass of orange jui
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ed der se ce

4

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