1|Page
CEA Prep- Full Practice Exam
Questions With Answers 2026
A 73 y.o. M presents to the ED with complaints of large output hematemesis since
early this morning. He is a endorses chronic alcohol use and his PMH is positive
for peptic ulcer. Which of the following symptoms indicate a potentially severe GI
bleed and likely need for immediate PRBC transfusion? - correct-answer-
Orthostatic dizziness, confusion, angina, severe palpitations, and cold/clammy
extremities
Rationale: Symptoms of severe blood loss include Orthostatic dizziness,
confusion, angina, severe palpitations, and cold/clammy extremities.
A 35-year-old man presents with recurrent episodes of severe pain in his back,
chest, and extremities. He has a history of sickle cell disease. What is the most
appropriate initial management during a pain crisis? - correct-answer-
Hospitalization for intravenous fluids and opioids
,2|Page
Rationale: Patients experiencing acute sickle cell crisis should be transported to
the hospital for IV hydration therapy and pain management.
A 14-year-old with sickle cell anemia has recently experienced a sickle cell crisis
and presents for a follow-up examination after a recent hospitalization. It is most
important to continue monitoring growth, development, and: - correct-answer-
hemoglobin levels.
Rationale: Chronic monitoring for patients with sickle cell disease includes
monitoring of hemoglobin and hematocrit.
A patient with a known intrinsic factor autoantibody is at risk for developing
which of the following conditions? - correct-answer-B12 deficiency and pernicious
anemia
Rationale: Causes of B12 deficiency include malabsorption and intrinsic factor
deficiency. Intrinsic factor deficiency is a result of gastric resection or IF
autoantibody.
,3|Page
A patient with rheumatoid arthritis is admitted to the rehab unit you oversee for
management of pain due to pelvic fracture after motor vehicle collision.
Admission labs show ANC of 1.4. The patient is asymptomatic and denies history
of repeated infection. What is the most appropriate level of intervention for his
patient? - correct-answer-Observation until patient becomes symptomatic
Rationale: Treatment of neutropenia in asymptomatic patients is observation.
Overactivation of coagulation and fibrinolysis resulting in thrombosis and
hemorrhage is a trademark of which of the following? - correct-answer-
Disseminated intravascular coagulation
Rationale: DIC is a systemic process that has potential to result in thrombosis and
hemorrhage often due to overactivation of coagulation and fibrinolysis.
A patient diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia requires iron supplementation.
Which of the following treatments would likely be ineffective? - correct-answer-
Ferrous sulfate 325 mg PO BID for a 43 y.o. F s/p gastric bypass 2 years ago
, 4|Page
Rationale: Patients who have undergone bariatric surgery have a permanent loss
and/or alteration of gastric space and subsequent decrease in the production of
HCL and/or enterocytes. This loss decreases the conversion/absorption of ferric
iron (present in food) into the usable ferrous form. Any PO administration of
either ferrous or ferric iron is less likely to be absorbed in adequate amounts after
gastric bypass or other gastric procedures.
All the following thrombocytopenic emergencies require immediate action
except: - correct-answer-Scheduled surgical procedure with mild
thrombocytopenia
Rationale: Mild thrombocytopenia is not an emergency, but should involve
evaluation by a hematologist or oncologist if no etiology is known prior to surgical
stress.
In which of the following patients is PRBC transfusion recommended? - correct-
answer-73 y.o. M with acute GI bleed and Hgb 6.2
CEA Prep- Full Practice Exam
Questions With Answers 2026
A 73 y.o. M presents to the ED with complaints of large output hematemesis since
early this morning. He is a endorses chronic alcohol use and his PMH is positive
for peptic ulcer. Which of the following symptoms indicate a potentially severe GI
bleed and likely need for immediate PRBC transfusion? - correct-answer-
Orthostatic dizziness, confusion, angina, severe palpitations, and cold/clammy
extremities
Rationale: Symptoms of severe blood loss include Orthostatic dizziness,
confusion, angina, severe palpitations, and cold/clammy extremities.
A 35-year-old man presents with recurrent episodes of severe pain in his back,
chest, and extremities. He has a history of sickle cell disease. What is the most
appropriate initial management during a pain crisis? - correct-answer-
Hospitalization for intravenous fluids and opioids
,2|Page
Rationale: Patients experiencing acute sickle cell crisis should be transported to
the hospital for IV hydration therapy and pain management.
A 14-year-old with sickle cell anemia has recently experienced a sickle cell crisis
and presents for a follow-up examination after a recent hospitalization. It is most
important to continue monitoring growth, development, and: - correct-answer-
hemoglobin levels.
Rationale: Chronic monitoring for patients with sickle cell disease includes
monitoring of hemoglobin and hematocrit.
A patient with a known intrinsic factor autoantibody is at risk for developing
which of the following conditions? - correct-answer-B12 deficiency and pernicious
anemia
Rationale: Causes of B12 deficiency include malabsorption and intrinsic factor
deficiency. Intrinsic factor deficiency is a result of gastric resection or IF
autoantibody.
,3|Page
A patient with rheumatoid arthritis is admitted to the rehab unit you oversee for
management of pain due to pelvic fracture after motor vehicle collision.
Admission labs show ANC of 1.4. The patient is asymptomatic and denies history
of repeated infection. What is the most appropriate level of intervention for his
patient? - correct-answer-Observation until patient becomes symptomatic
Rationale: Treatment of neutropenia in asymptomatic patients is observation.
Overactivation of coagulation and fibrinolysis resulting in thrombosis and
hemorrhage is a trademark of which of the following? - correct-answer-
Disseminated intravascular coagulation
Rationale: DIC is a systemic process that has potential to result in thrombosis and
hemorrhage often due to overactivation of coagulation and fibrinolysis.
A patient diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia requires iron supplementation.
Which of the following treatments would likely be ineffective? - correct-answer-
Ferrous sulfate 325 mg PO BID for a 43 y.o. F s/p gastric bypass 2 years ago
, 4|Page
Rationale: Patients who have undergone bariatric surgery have a permanent loss
and/or alteration of gastric space and subsequent decrease in the production of
HCL and/or enterocytes. This loss decreases the conversion/absorption of ferric
iron (present in food) into the usable ferrous form. Any PO administration of
either ferrous or ferric iron is less likely to be absorbed in adequate amounts after
gastric bypass or other gastric procedures.
All the following thrombocytopenic emergencies require immediate action
except: - correct-answer-Scheduled surgical procedure with mild
thrombocytopenia
Rationale: Mild thrombocytopenia is not an emergency, but should involve
evaluation by a hematologist or oncologist if no etiology is known prior to surgical
stress.
In which of the following patients is PRBC transfusion recommended? - correct-
answer-73 y.o. M with acute GI bleed and Hgb 6.2
