ATI RN Maternal Newborn Practice Test 2026/2027
| ATI Maternal Newborn Nursing Study Guide,
Practice Questions & Answers, Pregnancy, Labor &
Delivery, Postpartum, Newborn Care, Complications
& NCLEX-RN Exam Prep
Question 1: A nurse is assessing a client who is at 12 weeks of
gestation. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify
as a positive sign of pregnancy?
A. Amenorrhea
B. Breast tenderness
C. Fetal heart tones auscultated by Doppler
D. Nausea and vomiting
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Fetal heart tones auscultated by Doppler
Rationale: Positive signs of pregnancy are those that can be attributed only
to the presence of a fetus and are confirmed by the examiner. Auscultation
of fetal heart tones via Doppler is a positive sign. Amenorrhea, breast
tenderness, and nausea/vomiting are presumptive signs, which are
subjective and can be caused by other conditions.
Question 2: A nurse is calculating the estimated date of delivery
(EDD) for a client whose last menstrual period (LMP) began on
March 10. Using Naegele's rule, which of the following dates should
the nurse identify as the EDD?
A. December 10
B. December 17
C. December 3
D. December 24
CORRECT ANSWER: B. December 17
Rationale: Naegele's rule calculates the EDD by subtracting 3 months from
the first day of the LMP and adding 7 days, then adding 1 year. March 10
minus 3 months is December 10; adding 7 days gives December 17.
Question 3: A nurse is caring for a client at 32 weeks of gestation
who reports frequent heartburn. Which of the following
instructions should the nurse provide?
A. "Lie down immediately after eating."
B. "Eat three large meals per day."
,C. "Avoid spicy and fatty foods."
D. "Drink large amounts of fluid with meals."
CORRECT ANSWER: C. "Avoid spicy and fatty foods."
Rationale: Heartburn in pregnancy results from progesterone-induced
relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter and increased abdominal
pressure. Clients should avoid spicy and fatty foods, eat small frequent
meals, remain upright after eating, and avoid drinking large volumes with
meals.
Question 4: A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client at
28 weeks of gestation. Which of the following findings should the
nurse report to the provider?
A. Hemoglobin 11.5 g/dL
B. Platelet count 250,000/mm³
C. Fasting blood glucose 105 mg/dL
D. Hematocrit 34%
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Fasting blood glucose 105 mg/dL
Rationale: A fasting blood glucose of 105 mg/dL is elevated and suggests
gestational diabetes, which requires further evaluation. Normal hemoglobin
in pregnancy is 11 to 14 g/dL, hematocrit 33% to 44%, and platelet count
150,000 to 400,000/mm³.
Question 5: A nurse is teaching a client at 10 weeks of gestation
about nutrition during pregnancy. Which of the following
statements by the client indicates understanding?
A. "I should increase my calcium intake to 1,000 mg daily."
B. "I need to double my calorie intake during the first trimester."
C. "I should take 400 mcg of folic acid daily."
D. "I need to limit my protein intake."
CORRECT ANSWER: C. "I should take 400 mcg of folic acid daily."
Rationale: Folic acid 400 mcg daily is recommended prior to conception
and during early pregnancy to prevent neural tube defects. Calorie needs
increase by about 340 kcal/day in the second trimester and 452 kcal/day in
the third, not doubled in the first. Calcium needs are 1,000 mg/day for all
adults, and protein intake should increase, not decrease.
,Question 6: A nurse is assessing a client in the first trimester who
reports urinary frequency. Which of the following responses by the
nurse is appropriate?
A. "This is caused by the fetus pressing on your bladder."
B. "This is a sign of a urinary tract infection."
C. "This results from increased blood flow to the kidneys and pressure from
the growing uterus."
D. "You should restrict your fluid intake."
CORRECT ANSWER: C. "This results from increased blood flow to
the kidneys and pressure from the growing uterus."
Rationale: Urinary frequency in early pregnancy is caused by increased
renal blood flow, increased glomerular filtration rate, and pressure from the
enlarging uterus on the bladder. Fluid restriction is not recommended.
Frequency alone is not indicative of infection unless accompanied by
dysuria, urgency, or fever.
Question 7: A nurse is preparing to administer Rho(D) immune
globulin to a client at 28 weeks of gestation. Which of the following
client information should the nurse verify prior to administration?
A. Blood type and Rh status
B. Hemoglobin and hematocrit
C. Glucose tolerance test results
D. Group B streptococcus status
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Blood type and Rh status
Rationale: Rho(D) immune globulin is administered to Rh-negative clients
who are not sensitized to prevent Rh sensitization. The nurse must verify
the client is Rh-negative and has a negative antibody screen before
administration at 28 weeks and within 72 hours after delivery of an Rh-
positive infant.
Question 8: A nurse is caring for a client in the second stage of
labor. Which of the following findings indicates the need for
immediate intervention?
A. Maternal heart rate of 90/min
B. Fetal heart rate late decelerations
, C. Client reports intense pressure
D. Contractions every 3 minutes
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Fetal heart rate late decelerations
Rationale: Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency and
require immediate intervention, including repositioning the client,
administering oxygen, increasing IV fluids, and notifying the provider.
Intense pressure and contractions every 3 minutes are expected findings in
the second stage.
Question 9: A nurse is monitoring a client in labor who received
epidural anesthesia. Which of the following findings should the
nurse report immediately?
A. Blood pressure 100/60 mm Hg
B. Fetal heart rate 140/min
C. Maternal temperature 37.2°C (99°F)
D. Sudden onset of severe headache
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Sudden onset of severe headache
Rationale: A sudden severe headache after epidural anesthesia may
indicate dural puncture and cerebrospinal fluid leak, which can lead to
spinal headache. This requires immediate evaluation. Blood pressure of
100/60 may be slightly low but is not immediately dangerous, and a
temperature of 99°F is within normal limits.
Question 10: A nurse is assessing a client who is 1 hour postpartum
following a vaginal delivery. Which of the following findings
requires immediate intervention?
A. Fundus firm at the umbilicus
B. Saturated perineal pad within 15 minutes
C. Lochia rubra moderate amount
D. Blood pressure 110/70 mm Hg
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Saturated perineal pad within 15 minutes
Rationale: A perineal pad saturated within 15 minutes indicates excessive
bleeding and possible postpartum hemorrhage. The nurse should massage
the fundus, assess for lacerations, and notify the provider. A firm fundus at
the umbilicus and moderate lochia rubra are expected findings.
| ATI Maternal Newborn Nursing Study Guide,
Practice Questions & Answers, Pregnancy, Labor &
Delivery, Postpartum, Newborn Care, Complications
& NCLEX-RN Exam Prep
Question 1: A nurse is assessing a client who is at 12 weeks of
gestation. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify
as a positive sign of pregnancy?
A. Amenorrhea
B. Breast tenderness
C. Fetal heart tones auscultated by Doppler
D. Nausea and vomiting
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Fetal heart tones auscultated by Doppler
Rationale: Positive signs of pregnancy are those that can be attributed only
to the presence of a fetus and are confirmed by the examiner. Auscultation
of fetal heart tones via Doppler is a positive sign. Amenorrhea, breast
tenderness, and nausea/vomiting are presumptive signs, which are
subjective and can be caused by other conditions.
Question 2: A nurse is calculating the estimated date of delivery
(EDD) for a client whose last menstrual period (LMP) began on
March 10. Using Naegele's rule, which of the following dates should
the nurse identify as the EDD?
A. December 10
B. December 17
C. December 3
D. December 24
CORRECT ANSWER: B. December 17
Rationale: Naegele's rule calculates the EDD by subtracting 3 months from
the first day of the LMP and adding 7 days, then adding 1 year. March 10
minus 3 months is December 10; adding 7 days gives December 17.
Question 3: A nurse is caring for a client at 32 weeks of gestation
who reports frequent heartburn. Which of the following
instructions should the nurse provide?
A. "Lie down immediately after eating."
B. "Eat three large meals per day."
,C. "Avoid spicy and fatty foods."
D. "Drink large amounts of fluid with meals."
CORRECT ANSWER: C. "Avoid spicy and fatty foods."
Rationale: Heartburn in pregnancy results from progesterone-induced
relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter and increased abdominal
pressure. Clients should avoid spicy and fatty foods, eat small frequent
meals, remain upright after eating, and avoid drinking large volumes with
meals.
Question 4: A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client at
28 weeks of gestation. Which of the following findings should the
nurse report to the provider?
A. Hemoglobin 11.5 g/dL
B. Platelet count 250,000/mm³
C. Fasting blood glucose 105 mg/dL
D. Hematocrit 34%
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Fasting blood glucose 105 mg/dL
Rationale: A fasting blood glucose of 105 mg/dL is elevated and suggests
gestational diabetes, which requires further evaluation. Normal hemoglobin
in pregnancy is 11 to 14 g/dL, hematocrit 33% to 44%, and platelet count
150,000 to 400,000/mm³.
Question 5: A nurse is teaching a client at 10 weeks of gestation
about nutrition during pregnancy. Which of the following
statements by the client indicates understanding?
A. "I should increase my calcium intake to 1,000 mg daily."
B. "I need to double my calorie intake during the first trimester."
C. "I should take 400 mcg of folic acid daily."
D. "I need to limit my protein intake."
CORRECT ANSWER: C. "I should take 400 mcg of folic acid daily."
Rationale: Folic acid 400 mcg daily is recommended prior to conception
and during early pregnancy to prevent neural tube defects. Calorie needs
increase by about 340 kcal/day in the second trimester and 452 kcal/day in
the third, not doubled in the first. Calcium needs are 1,000 mg/day for all
adults, and protein intake should increase, not decrease.
,Question 6: A nurse is assessing a client in the first trimester who
reports urinary frequency. Which of the following responses by the
nurse is appropriate?
A. "This is caused by the fetus pressing on your bladder."
B. "This is a sign of a urinary tract infection."
C. "This results from increased blood flow to the kidneys and pressure from
the growing uterus."
D. "You should restrict your fluid intake."
CORRECT ANSWER: C. "This results from increased blood flow to
the kidneys and pressure from the growing uterus."
Rationale: Urinary frequency in early pregnancy is caused by increased
renal blood flow, increased glomerular filtration rate, and pressure from the
enlarging uterus on the bladder. Fluid restriction is not recommended.
Frequency alone is not indicative of infection unless accompanied by
dysuria, urgency, or fever.
Question 7: A nurse is preparing to administer Rho(D) immune
globulin to a client at 28 weeks of gestation. Which of the following
client information should the nurse verify prior to administration?
A. Blood type and Rh status
B. Hemoglobin and hematocrit
C. Glucose tolerance test results
D. Group B streptococcus status
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Blood type and Rh status
Rationale: Rho(D) immune globulin is administered to Rh-negative clients
who are not sensitized to prevent Rh sensitization. The nurse must verify
the client is Rh-negative and has a negative antibody screen before
administration at 28 weeks and within 72 hours after delivery of an Rh-
positive infant.
Question 8: A nurse is caring for a client in the second stage of
labor. Which of the following findings indicates the need for
immediate intervention?
A. Maternal heart rate of 90/min
B. Fetal heart rate late decelerations
, C. Client reports intense pressure
D. Contractions every 3 minutes
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Fetal heart rate late decelerations
Rationale: Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency and
require immediate intervention, including repositioning the client,
administering oxygen, increasing IV fluids, and notifying the provider.
Intense pressure and contractions every 3 minutes are expected findings in
the second stage.
Question 9: A nurse is monitoring a client in labor who received
epidural anesthesia. Which of the following findings should the
nurse report immediately?
A. Blood pressure 100/60 mm Hg
B. Fetal heart rate 140/min
C. Maternal temperature 37.2°C (99°F)
D. Sudden onset of severe headache
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Sudden onset of severe headache
Rationale: A sudden severe headache after epidural anesthesia may
indicate dural puncture and cerebrospinal fluid leak, which can lead to
spinal headache. This requires immediate evaluation. Blood pressure of
100/60 may be slightly low but is not immediately dangerous, and a
temperature of 99°F is within normal limits.
Question 10: A nurse is assessing a client who is 1 hour postpartum
following a vaginal delivery. Which of the following findings
requires immediate intervention?
A. Fundus firm at the umbilicus
B. Saturated perineal pad within 15 minutes
C. Lochia rubra moderate amount
D. Blood pressure 110/70 mm Hg
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Saturated perineal pad within 15 minutes
Rationale: A perineal pad saturated within 15 minutes indicates excessive
bleeding and possible postpartum hemorrhage. The nurse should massage
the fundus, assess for lacerations, and notify the provider. A firm fundus at
the umbilicus and moderate lochia rubra are expected findings.
