ATI RN Maternal Newborn Practice Test 2026/2027
| ATI Maternal Newborn Nursing Study Guide,
Practice Questions & Answers, Pregnancy, Labor &
Delivery, Postpartum, Newborn Care & NCLEX-RN
Exam Prep
Question 1: A nurse is assessing a client at 8 weeks of gestation. Which
finding is considered a positive sign of pregnancy?
A. Amenorrhea
B. Goodell's sign
C. Fetal heart tone audible by Doppler
D. Positive pregnancy test
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Fetal heart tone audible by Doppler
Rationale: Positive signs of pregnancy are objective findings directly
attributable to the fetus. Fetal heart tones, fetal movement palpated by the
examiner, and visualization of the fetus on ultrasound are positive signs.
Amenorrhea is presumptive, while Goodell's sign and a positive pregnancy
test are probable signs .
Question 2: A nurse is teaching a client at 10 weeks of gestation with
iron deficiency anemia about dietary iron absorption. Which
recommendation should the nurse include?
A. Increase intake of dairy products with meals
B. Eat more citrus fruits with iron-rich foods
C. Avoid eating green leafy vegetables
D. Take iron supplements with milk
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Eat more citrus fruits with iron-rich foods
Rationale: Vitamin C enhances iron absorption. Citrus fruits should be
consumed with iron-rich foods or supplements. Dairy products and milk
inhibit iron absorption. Green leafy vegetables are good iron sources and
should be encouraged .
Question 3: A nurse is caring for a client at 26 weeks of gestation who
reports dizziness after lying on her back. Which action should the nurse
take?
A. Request preeclampsia laboratory studies
B. Advise the client to lie on her side
,C. Request an ultrasound to evaluate fetal wellbeing
D. Advise the client to add a calcium supplement
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Advise the client to lie on her side
Rationale: Supine hypotensive syndrome occurs when the gravid uterus
compresses the inferior vena cava, reducing venous return and causing
dizziness. The nurse should advise the client to lie on her side, preferably
the left lateral position, to relieve compression .
Question 4: A nurse is assessing a client at 36 weeks of gestation who
reports sudden, painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. Which condition
should the nurse suspect?
A. Abruptio placentae
B. Preterm labor
C. Placenta previa
D. Ectopic pregnancy
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Placenta previa
Rationale: Placenta previa presents with sudden, painless, bright red
vaginal bleeding because the placenta is implanted over or near the
cervical os. Abruptio placentae typically presents with painful, dark
bleeding and uterine rigidity .
Question 5: A nurse is caring for a client receiving magnesium sulfate
for preeclampsia. Which finding indicates magnesium toxicity?
A. Deep tendon reflexes 2+
B. Urine output 20 mL/hr
C. Respiratory rate 14/min
D. Magnesium level 6 mEq/L
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Urine output 20 mL/hr
Rationale: Magnesium is excreted by the kidneys. Urine output less than 30
mL/hr indicates magnesium toxicity risk. Deep tendon reflexes of 2+ and
respiratory rate of 14/min are normal. A magnesium level of 6 mEq/L is
within therapeutic range for seizure prophylaxis .
Question 6: A nurse is assessing a client at 32 weeks of gestation
diagnosed with preeclampsia. Which finding is most consistent with
this diagnosis?
,A. Blood pressure 128/82 mmHg on one occasion
B. Proteinuria of trace on dipstick
C. Blood pressure ≥140/90 mmHg on two occasions with proteinuria ≥300
mg/24 hours
D. Mild dependent edema of the ankles
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Blood pressure ≥140/90 mmHg on two
occasions with proteinuria ≥300 mg/24 hours
Rationale: Preeclampsia is defined as BP ≥140/90 mmHg on two occasions
at least 4 hours apart after 20 weeks gestation, accompanied by
proteinuria ≥300 mg in 24 hours. Mild ankle edema is common in normal
pregnancy and is not diagnostic .
Question 7: A nurse is caring for a newborn 1 hour after birth. Which
finding should the nurse identify as a manifestation of respiratory
distress?
A. Acrocyanosis
B. Nasal flaring
C. Respiratory rate of 50/min
D. Abdominal breathing
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Nasal flaring
Rationale: Nasal flaring, grunting, and chest retractions are classic signs of
respiratory distress in a newborn. Acrocyanosis is normal in the first 24-48
hours. A respiratory rate of 50/min and abdominal breathing are normal
newborn findings .
Question 8: A nurse is assessing a newborn who is 2 hours old. Which
finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?
A. Heart rate of 140/min
B. Respiratory rate of 60/min
C. Acrocyanosis
D. Temperature of 36.2°C (97.2°F)
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Temperature of 36.2°C (97.2°F)
Rationale: Newborn temperature should be maintained between 36.5°C
and 37.5°C (97.7°F to 99.5°F). A temperature of 36.2°C indicates
, hypothermia and should be reported. Heart rate of 140/min, respiratory
rate of 60/min, and acrocyanosis are normal newborn findings .
Question 9: A nurse is caring for a client in the first stage of labor.
Which finding indicates the client is in the active phase?
A. Cervical dilation of 7 cm
B. Contractions every 10 minutes
C. Cervical dilation of 2 cm
D. Contractions lasting 20 seconds
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Cervical dilation of 7 cm
Rationale: The active phase of the first stage of labor is characterized by
cervical dilation from 4 to 7 cm with more frequent and intense
contractions. Cervical dilation of 2 cm and contractions every 10 minutes
or lasting 20 seconds are characteristic of the latent phase .
Question 10: A nurse is caring for a client at 12 weeks of gestation who
reports nausea and vomiting. Which intervention should the nurse
recommend?
A. Eat small, frequent meals throughout the day
B. Increase intake of spicy foods
C. Consume large meals at bedtime
D. Avoid all fluids until symptoms subside
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Eat small, frequent meals throughout the day
Rationale: Nausea and vomiting in early pregnancy is best managed by
eating small, frequent meals to prevent the stomach from becoming
empty, which exacerbates symptoms. Spicy foods may worsen nausea,
large bedtime meals increase discomfort, and fluid avoidance risks
dehydration .
Question 11: A nurse is caring for a client in active labor with late
decelerations on the fetal monitor. What is the priority nursing action?
A. Reposition the client to the left side
B. Administer oxygen via face mask
C. Prepare for immediate delivery
D. Increase IV fluid rate
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Administer oxygen via face mask
| ATI Maternal Newborn Nursing Study Guide,
Practice Questions & Answers, Pregnancy, Labor &
Delivery, Postpartum, Newborn Care & NCLEX-RN
Exam Prep
Question 1: A nurse is assessing a client at 8 weeks of gestation. Which
finding is considered a positive sign of pregnancy?
A. Amenorrhea
B. Goodell's sign
C. Fetal heart tone audible by Doppler
D. Positive pregnancy test
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Fetal heart tone audible by Doppler
Rationale: Positive signs of pregnancy are objective findings directly
attributable to the fetus. Fetal heart tones, fetal movement palpated by the
examiner, and visualization of the fetus on ultrasound are positive signs.
Amenorrhea is presumptive, while Goodell's sign and a positive pregnancy
test are probable signs .
Question 2: A nurse is teaching a client at 10 weeks of gestation with
iron deficiency anemia about dietary iron absorption. Which
recommendation should the nurse include?
A. Increase intake of dairy products with meals
B. Eat more citrus fruits with iron-rich foods
C. Avoid eating green leafy vegetables
D. Take iron supplements with milk
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Eat more citrus fruits with iron-rich foods
Rationale: Vitamin C enhances iron absorption. Citrus fruits should be
consumed with iron-rich foods or supplements. Dairy products and milk
inhibit iron absorption. Green leafy vegetables are good iron sources and
should be encouraged .
Question 3: A nurse is caring for a client at 26 weeks of gestation who
reports dizziness after lying on her back. Which action should the nurse
take?
A. Request preeclampsia laboratory studies
B. Advise the client to lie on her side
,C. Request an ultrasound to evaluate fetal wellbeing
D. Advise the client to add a calcium supplement
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Advise the client to lie on her side
Rationale: Supine hypotensive syndrome occurs when the gravid uterus
compresses the inferior vena cava, reducing venous return and causing
dizziness. The nurse should advise the client to lie on her side, preferably
the left lateral position, to relieve compression .
Question 4: A nurse is assessing a client at 36 weeks of gestation who
reports sudden, painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. Which condition
should the nurse suspect?
A. Abruptio placentae
B. Preterm labor
C. Placenta previa
D. Ectopic pregnancy
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Placenta previa
Rationale: Placenta previa presents with sudden, painless, bright red
vaginal bleeding because the placenta is implanted over or near the
cervical os. Abruptio placentae typically presents with painful, dark
bleeding and uterine rigidity .
Question 5: A nurse is caring for a client receiving magnesium sulfate
for preeclampsia. Which finding indicates magnesium toxicity?
A. Deep tendon reflexes 2+
B. Urine output 20 mL/hr
C. Respiratory rate 14/min
D. Magnesium level 6 mEq/L
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Urine output 20 mL/hr
Rationale: Magnesium is excreted by the kidneys. Urine output less than 30
mL/hr indicates magnesium toxicity risk. Deep tendon reflexes of 2+ and
respiratory rate of 14/min are normal. A magnesium level of 6 mEq/L is
within therapeutic range for seizure prophylaxis .
Question 6: A nurse is assessing a client at 32 weeks of gestation
diagnosed with preeclampsia. Which finding is most consistent with
this diagnosis?
,A. Blood pressure 128/82 mmHg on one occasion
B. Proteinuria of trace on dipstick
C. Blood pressure ≥140/90 mmHg on two occasions with proteinuria ≥300
mg/24 hours
D. Mild dependent edema of the ankles
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Blood pressure ≥140/90 mmHg on two
occasions with proteinuria ≥300 mg/24 hours
Rationale: Preeclampsia is defined as BP ≥140/90 mmHg on two occasions
at least 4 hours apart after 20 weeks gestation, accompanied by
proteinuria ≥300 mg in 24 hours. Mild ankle edema is common in normal
pregnancy and is not diagnostic .
Question 7: A nurse is caring for a newborn 1 hour after birth. Which
finding should the nurse identify as a manifestation of respiratory
distress?
A. Acrocyanosis
B. Nasal flaring
C. Respiratory rate of 50/min
D. Abdominal breathing
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Nasal flaring
Rationale: Nasal flaring, grunting, and chest retractions are classic signs of
respiratory distress in a newborn. Acrocyanosis is normal in the first 24-48
hours. A respiratory rate of 50/min and abdominal breathing are normal
newborn findings .
Question 8: A nurse is assessing a newborn who is 2 hours old. Which
finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?
A. Heart rate of 140/min
B. Respiratory rate of 60/min
C. Acrocyanosis
D. Temperature of 36.2°C (97.2°F)
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Temperature of 36.2°C (97.2°F)
Rationale: Newborn temperature should be maintained between 36.5°C
and 37.5°C (97.7°F to 99.5°F). A temperature of 36.2°C indicates
, hypothermia and should be reported. Heart rate of 140/min, respiratory
rate of 60/min, and acrocyanosis are normal newborn findings .
Question 9: A nurse is caring for a client in the first stage of labor.
Which finding indicates the client is in the active phase?
A. Cervical dilation of 7 cm
B. Contractions every 10 minutes
C. Cervical dilation of 2 cm
D. Contractions lasting 20 seconds
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Cervical dilation of 7 cm
Rationale: The active phase of the first stage of labor is characterized by
cervical dilation from 4 to 7 cm with more frequent and intense
contractions. Cervical dilation of 2 cm and contractions every 10 minutes
or lasting 20 seconds are characteristic of the latent phase .
Question 10: A nurse is caring for a client at 12 weeks of gestation who
reports nausea and vomiting. Which intervention should the nurse
recommend?
A. Eat small, frequent meals throughout the day
B. Increase intake of spicy foods
C. Consume large meals at bedtime
D. Avoid all fluids until symptoms subside
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Eat small, frequent meals throughout the day
Rationale: Nausea and vomiting in early pregnancy is best managed by
eating small, frequent meals to prevent the stomach from becoming
empty, which exacerbates symptoms. Spicy foods may worsen nausea,
large bedtime meals increase discomfort, and fluid avoidance risks
dehydration .
Question 11: A nurse is caring for a client in active labor with late
decelerations on the fetal monitor. What is the priority nursing action?
A. Reposition the client to the left side
B. Administer oxygen via face mask
C. Prepare for immediate delivery
D. Increase IV fluid rate
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Administer oxygen via face mask
