PRAXIS ETS SLP |ACTUAL QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED ANSWERS NEWEST UPDATE|GRADED
A+
Core Domains
Foundations and Professional Practice
Speech Sound Production
Fluency
Voice, Resonance, and Motor Speech
Receptive and Expressive Language
Social Aspects of Communication (Pragmatics)
Cognitive Aspects of Communication
Augmentative and Alternative Communication (AAC)
Hearing
Feeding and Swallowing
Introduction
The Praxis Speech-Language Pathology (5331) Examination evaluates the candidate's readiness
for independent professional practice as a speech-language pathologist across all primary
employment settings, including schools, hospitals, clinics, and private practice. The assessment
measures foundational knowledge, professional practice knowledge, and specialized knowledge
applied across the "big nine" areas of practice. The examination consists of 132 selected-response
questions administered in 150 minutes, with a passing score of 162 on a 100–200 scale for ASHA
certification and state licensure. This comprehensive test bank challenges the candidate to
synthesize assessment data, formulate differential diagnoses, select appropriate intervention
strategies, and apply evidence-based practice across diverse populations and clinical scenarios.
SECTION ONE: QUESTIONS 1–100
1. Which cranial nerve is primarily responsible for innervating the muscles of the tongue?
A. Trigeminal (CN V)
B. Facial (CN VII)
C. Glossopharyngeal (CN IX)
D. Hypoglossal (CN XII)
🟢 D. Hypoglossal (CN XII)
,🔴 RATIONALE: The hypoglossal nerve (CN XII) provides motor innervation to all intrinsic and
extrinsic muscles of the tongue except the palatoglossus. The trigeminal nerve provides
sensation to the face and motor to muscles of mastication, the facial nerve innervates muscles
of facial expression, and the glossopharyngeal nerve provides taste and sensation to the
posterior tongue.
2. A 4-year-old child produces [pun] for "spoon" and [top] for "soap." Which area should be
evaluated first?
A. Receptive language
B. Expressive language
C. Speech sound production
D. Fluency
🟢 C. Speech sound production
🔴 RATIONALE: The child is demonstrating cluster reduction and stopping of fricatives, which
are phonological process errors. A speech sound evaluation should be prioritized to assess the
nature and severity of the articulation/phonological disorder.
3. Which assessment tool is most appropriate for evaluating a client's functional
communication in natural settings?
A. Standardized articulation test
B. Language sample analysis
C. Audiometric screening
D. Oral mechanism examination
🟢 B. Language sample analysis
🔴 RATIONALE: Language sample analysis provides authentic, functional communication data
in naturalistic contexts, capturing pragmatics, syntax, semantics, and morphology in real-world
communication.
4. A client with aphasia demonstrates fluent, grammatical speech with poor comprehension
and frequent neologisms. This is most consistent with:
A. Broca's aphasia
B. Wernicke's aphasia
,C. Conduction aphasia
D. Global aphasia
🟢 B. Wernicke's aphasia
🔴 RATIONALE: Wernicke's aphasia is characterized by fluent but empty speech, poor auditory
comprehension, and neologisms due to damage to the posterior superior temporal gyrus.
5. Which of the following is a risk factor for developing a voice disorder in a teacher?
A. Adequate hydration
B. Vocal rest between classes
C. Frequent yelling in noisy classrooms
D. Using a microphone for instruction
🟢 C. Frequent yelling in noisy classrooms
🔴 RATIONALE: Vocal abuse, including yelling, is a primary risk factor for voice disorders such
as vocal nodules. Teachers are a high-risk occupational group due to prolonged voice use and
environmental noise.
6. A 6-year-old child who stutters is being evaluated. Which of the following is the most
important prognostic indicator?
A. Family history of stuttering
B. Age of onset before 3 years
C. Presence of concomitant speech sound errors
D. Child's awareness of the stuttering
🟢 A. Family history of stuttering
🔴 RATIONALE: A positive family history of persistent stuttering is one of the strongest
predictors of chronic stuttering. A family history indicates a genetic predisposition and
increases the likelihood of persistence.
7. Which of the following best describes the purpose of a dynamic assessment?
A. To compare a child's performance to normative data
B. To measure a child's ability to learn new skills with support
, C. To document a child's current level of functioning only
D. To identify the etiology of a communication disorder
🟢 B. To measure a child's ability to learn new skills with support
🔴 RATIONALE: Dynamic assessment evaluates a child's learning potential and modifiability by
providing mediated learning experiences and measuring response to intervention,
distinguishing language difference from language disorder.
8. A child with a repaired cleft palate presents with hypernasal speech. Which of the
following is the most appropriate intervention target?
A. Increasing loudness
B. Improving velopharyngeal closure
C. Reducing nasal airflow
D. Strengthening the tongue
🟢 B. Improving velopharyngeal closure
🔴 RATIONALE: Hypernasality results from inadequate velopharyngeal closure during speech.
Intervention should target improving velopharyngeal function through strengthening exercises,
prosthetic management, or surgical referral.
9. A 70-year-old client presents with progressive difficulty swallowing solids and liquids,
weight loss, and a sensation of food sticking in the throat. Which of the following is the
most appropriate initial referral?
A. Gastroenterologist for endoscopy
B. Neurologist for evaluation
C. Dietitian for texture modification
D. Pulmonologist for evaluation
🟢 A. Gastroenterologist for endoscopy
🔴 RATIONALE: Progressive dysphagia with weight loss and globus sensation in an older adult
warrants evaluation for esophageal pathology, including malignancy or stricture. An SLP may
be involved after medical evaluation.
A+
Core Domains
Foundations and Professional Practice
Speech Sound Production
Fluency
Voice, Resonance, and Motor Speech
Receptive and Expressive Language
Social Aspects of Communication (Pragmatics)
Cognitive Aspects of Communication
Augmentative and Alternative Communication (AAC)
Hearing
Feeding and Swallowing
Introduction
The Praxis Speech-Language Pathology (5331) Examination evaluates the candidate's readiness
for independent professional practice as a speech-language pathologist across all primary
employment settings, including schools, hospitals, clinics, and private practice. The assessment
measures foundational knowledge, professional practice knowledge, and specialized knowledge
applied across the "big nine" areas of practice. The examination consists of 132 selected-response
questions administered in 150 minutes, with a passing score of 162 on a 100–200 scale for ASHA
certification and state licensure. This comprehensive test bank challenges the candidate to
synthesize assessment data, formulate differential diagnoses, select appropriate intervention
strategies, and apply evidence-based practice across diverse populations and clinical scenarios.
SECTION ONE: QUESTIONS 1–100
1. Which cranial nerve is primarily responsible for innervating the muscles of the tongue?
A. Trigeminal (CN V)
B. Facial (CN VII)
C. Glossopharyngeal (CN IX)
D. Hypoglossal (CN XII)
🟢 D. Hypoglossal (CN XII)
,🔴 RATIONALE: The hypoglossal nerve (CN XII) provides motor innervation to all intrinsic and
extrinsic muscles of the tongue except the palatoglossus. The trigeminal nerve provides
sensation to the face and motor to muscles of mastication, the facial nerve innervates muscles
of facial expression, and the glossopharyngeal nerve provides taste and sensation to the
posterior tongue.
2. A 4-year-old child produces [pun] for "spoon" and [top] for "soap." Which area should be
evaluated first?
A. Receptive language
B. Expressive language
C. Speech sound production
D. Fluency
🟢 C. Speech sound production
🔴 RATIONALE: The child is demonstrating cluster reduction and stopping of fricatives, which
are phonological process errors. A speech sound evaluation should be prioritized to assess the
nature and severity of the articulation/phonological disorder.
3. Which assessment tool is most appropriate for evaluating a client's functional
communication in natural settings?
A. Standardized articulation test
B. Language sample analysis
C. Audiometric screening
D. Oral mechanism examination
🟢 B. Language sample analysis
🔴 RATIONALE: Language sample analysis provides authentic, functional communication data
in naturalistic contexts, capturing pragmatics, syntax, semantics, and morphology in real-world
communication.
4. A client with aphasia demonstrates fluent, grammatical speech with poor comprehension
and frequent neologisms. This is most consistent with:
A. Broca's aphasia
B. Wernicke's aphasia
,C. Conduction aphasia
D. Global aphasia
🟢 B. Wernicke's aphasia
🔴 RATIONALE: Wernicke's aphasia is characterized by fluent but empty speech, poor auditory
comprehension, and neologisms due to damage to the posterior superior temporal gyrus.
5. Which of the following is a risk factor for developing a voice disorder in a teacher?
A. Adequate hydration
B. Vocal rest between classes
C. Frequent yelling in noisy classrooms
D. Using a microphone for instruction
🟢 C. Frequent yelling in noisy classrooms
🔴 RATIONALE: Vocal abuse, including yelling, is a primary risk factor for voice disorders such
as vocal nodules. Teachers are a high-risk occupational group due to prolonged voice use and
environmental noise.
6. A 6-year-old child who stutters is being evaluated. Which of the following is the most
important prognostic indicator?
A. Family history of stuttering
B. Age of onset before 3 years
C. Presence of concomitant speech sound errors
D. Child's awareness of the stuttering
🟢 A. Family history of stuttering
🔴 RATIONALE: A positive family history of persistent stuttering is one of the strongest
predictors of chronic stuttering. A family history indicates a genetic predisposition and
increases the likelihood of persistence.
7. Which of the following best describes the purpose of a dynamic assessment?
A. To compare a child's performance to normative data
B. To measure a child's ability to learn new skills with support
, C. To document a child's current level of functioning only
D. To identify the etiology of a communication disorder
🟢 B. To measure a child's ability to learn new skills with support
🔴 RATIONALE: Dynamic assessment evaluates a child's learning potential and modifiability by
providing mediated learning experiences and measuring response to intervention,
distinguishing language difference from language disorder.
8. A child with a repaired cleft palate presents with hypernasal speech. Which of the
following is the most appropriate intervention target?
A. Increasing loudness
B. Improving velopharyngeal closure
C. Reducing nasal airflow
D. Strengthening the tongue
🟢 B. Improving velopharyngeal closure
🔴 RATIONALE: Hypernasality results from inadequate velopharyngeal closure during speech.
Intervention should target improving velopharyngeal function through strengthening exercises,
prosthetic management, or surgical referral.
9. A 70-year-old client presents with progressive difficulty swallowing solids and liquids,
weight loss, and a sensation of food sticking in the throat. Which of the following is the
most appropriate initial referral?
A. Gastroenterologist for endoscopy
B. Neurologist for evaluation
C. Dietitian for texture modification
D. Pulmonologist for evaluation
🟢 A. Gastroenterologist for endoscopy
🔴 RATIONALE: Progressive dysphagia with weight loss and globus sensation in an older adult
warrants evaluation for esophageal pathology, including malignancy or stricture. An SLP may
be involved after medical evaluation.
