NSG 5240 Advanced Pharmacology Final Practice Exam
(PDF) | Actual Questions & Answers with Rationales | South
College Advanced Pharmacology Final Exam Prep |
2026/2027 Study Guide
1. A patient taking an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor develops a persistent
dry cough. Which mechanism best explains this adverse effect?
A. Increased aldosterone secretion
B. Increased bradykinin accumulation
C. Excess sodium retention
D. Increased sympathetic stimulation
Answer: B. Increased bradykinin accumulation
Rationale: ACE inhibitors decrease degradation of bradykinin, and its accumulation can
produce the characteristic persistent dry cough.
2. Which medication class is generally considered first-line therapy for hypertension
in a patient with diabetes and albuminuria?
A. Thiazide diuretics
B. Calcium channel blockers
C. ACE inhibitors
D. Alpha-1 blockers
Answer: C. ACE inhibitors
,Rationale: ACE inhibitors reduce intraglomerular pressure and provide renal-protective
effects in patients with diabetes and albuminuria.
3. A patient receiving lisinopril should have which laboratory value monitored most
closely after initiation or dose adjustment?
A. Serum potassium
B. Serum calcium
C. Hemoglobin
D. Serum amylase
Answer: A. Serum potassium
Rationale: ACE inhibitors can decrease aldosterone activity and increase potassium levels,
particularly in patients with impaired renal function.
4. Which adverse effect is most characteristic of amlodipine therapy?
A. Severe hypoglycemia
B. Peripheral edema
C. Pulmonary fibrosis
D. Urinary retention
Answer: B. Peripheral edema
Rationale: Dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers commonly cause peripheral edema
because of arteriolar vasodilation.
,5. Which medication directly inhibits the sodium-potassium-chloride cotransporter in
the thick ascending loop of Henle?
A. Hydrochlorothiazide
B. Spironolactone
C. Furosemide
D. Acetazolamide
Answer: C. Furosemide
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that inhibits the Na-K-2Cl transporter in the thick
ascending limb.
6. Which electrolyte abnormality is particularly associated with loop diuretic therapy?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypermagnesemia
D. Hypernatremia
Answer: B. Hypokalemia
Rationale: Loop diuretics increase urinary potassium excretion and can cause clinically
significant hypokalemia.
, 7. Which medication is classified as a potassium-sparing aldosterone antagonist?
A. Spironolactone
B. Bumetanide
C. Chlorthalidone
D. Mannitol
Answer: A. Spironolactone
Rationale: Spironolactone antagonizes aldosterone receptors and promotes sodium
excretion while conserving potassium.
8. A patient taking spironolactone should be monitored particularly closely for which
adverse effect?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypocalcemia
D. Hypernatremia
Answer: B. Hyperkalemia
Rationale: Potassium-sparing diuretics can increase serum potassium, especially when
renal function is impaired or other potassium-raising medications are used.
9. Which beta blocker has relatively greater beta-1 selectivity at usual therapeutic
doses?
(PDF) | Actual Questions & Answers with Rationales | South
College Advanced Pharmacology Final Exam Prep |
2026/2027 Study Guide
1. A patient taking an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor develops a persistent
dry cough. Which mechanism best explains this adverse effect?
A. Increased aldosterone secretion
B. Increased bradykinin accumulation
C. Excess sodium retention
D. Increased sympathetic stimulation
Answer: B. Increased bradykinin accumulation
Rationale: ACE inhibitors decrease degradation of bradykinin, and its accumulation can
produce the characteristic persistent dry cough.
2. Which medication class is generally considered first-line therapy for hypertension
in a patient with diabetes and albuminuria?
A. Thiazide diuretics
B. Calcium channel blockers
C. ACE inhibitors
D. Alpha-1 blockers
Answer: C. ACE inhibitors
,Rationale: ACE inhibitors reduce intraglomerular pressure and provide renal-protective
effects in patients with diabetes and albuminuria.
3. A patient receiving lisinopril should have which laboratory value monitored most
closely after initiation or dose adjustment?
A. Serum potassium
B. Serum calcium
C. Hemoglobin
D. Serum amylase
Answer: A. Serum potassium
Rationale: ACE inhibitors can decrease aldosterone activity and increase potassium levels,
particularly in patients with impaired renal function.
4. Which adverse effect is most characteristic of amlodipine therapy?
A. Severe hypoglycemia
B. Peripheral edema
C. Pulmonary fibrosis
D. Urinary retention
Answer: B. Peripheral edema
Rationale: Dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers commonly cause peripheral edema
because of arteriolar vasodilation.
,5. Which medication directly inhibits the sodium-potassium-chloride cotransporter in
the thick ascending loop of Henle?
A. Hydrochlorothiazide
B. Spironolactone
C. Furosemide
D. Acetazolamide
Answer: C. Furosemide
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that inhibits the Na-K-2Cl transporter in the thick
ascending limb.
6. Which electrolyte abnormality is particularly associated with loop diuretic therapy?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypermagnesemia
D. Hypernatremia
Answer: B. Hypokalemia
Rationale: Loop diuretics increase urinary potassium excretion and can cause clinically
significant hypokalemia.
, 7. Which medication is classified as a potassium-sparing aldosterone antagonist?
A. Spironolactone
B. Bumetanide
C. Chlorthalidone
D. Mannitol
Answer: A. Spironolactone
Rationale: Spironolactone antagonizes aldosterone receptors and promotes sodium
excretion while conserving potassium.
8. A patient taking spironolactone should be monitored particularly closely for which
adverse effect?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypocalcemia
D. Hypernatremia
Answer: B. Hyperkalemia
Rationale: Potassium-sparing diuretics can increase serum potassium, especially when
renal function is impaired or other potassium-raising medications are used.
9. Which beta blocker has relatively greater beta-1 selectivity at usual therapeutic
doses?
