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RN ATI Pharmacology 2026 Retake Proctored
Exam WITH NGN Level 3 Passing Exam Questions
and Answers | 100% Pass Guaranteed | Graded
A+
1. A nurse is preparing to administer cefazolin to a client who has a history of a mild penicillin
allergy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Administer the medication without concern.
B. Monitor the client closely for a cross-sensitivity reaction.
C. Hold the medication and notify the provider.
D. Administer diphenhydramine before the cefazolin.
☑ Correct Answer: B
☑ Explanation: Cephalosporins share a beta-lactam ring with penicillins, so clients
with a penicillin allergy may have a cross-sensitivity reaction. The nurse should monitor closely
and notify the provider if a severe allergy is documented.
2. A nurse is administering IV vancomycin. The client develops flushing, rash, and hypotension.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Stop the infusion and administer epinephrine.
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B. Slow the infusion rate and notify the provider.
C. Continue the infusion and document the finding.
D. Administer a bolus of normal saline.
☑ Correct Answer: B
☑ Explanation: These findings indicate vancomycin infusion reaction (flushing, rash,
hypotension), which is managed by slowing the infusion rate. Epinephrine is for anaphylaxis, not
this reaction.
3. A nurse is monitoring a client receiving gentamicin. Which of the following laboratory values
should the nurse report?
A. Serum creatinine 1.0 mg/dL.
B. Peak gentamicin level 6 mcg/mL.
C. Trough gentamicin level 4 mcg/mL.
D. BUN 15 mg/dL.
☑ Correct Answer: C
☑ Explanation: A trough gentamicin level greater than 2 mcg/mL increases the risk of
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nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity. The nurse should report this. The other values are within normal
limits.
4. A nurse is administering penicillin G. Which of the following findings indicates anaphylaxis?
A. Urticaria and pruritus.
B. Wheezing and hypotension.
C. Nausea and vomiting.
D. Diarrhea and abdominal cramps.
☑ Correct Answer: B
☑ Explanation: Anaphylaxis is a severe hypersensitivity reaction characterized by
airway compromise (wheezing, stridor) and hypotension. Urticaria alone may indicate a mild
allergic reaction but not necessarily anaphylaxis.
5. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for metronidazole. Which of the
following instructions should the nurse include?
A. "Take this medication with an antacid."
B. "Avoid alcohol while taking this medication."
C. "Increase your intake of dairy products."
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D. "Take this medication at bedtime."
☑ Correct Answer: B
☑ Explanation: Metronidazole can cause a disulfiram-like reaction with alcohol,
leading to severe nausea, vomiting, flushing, and tachycardia. Clients should avoid alcohol
during and for 3 days after therapy.
6. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for levofloxacin.
Which of the following findings is a contraindication?
A. The client has a history of tendon rupture.
B. The client has a history of hypertension.
C. The client has a history of asthma.
D. The client has a history of diabetes.
☑ Correct Answer: A
☑ Explanation: Fluoroquinolones can cause tendinitis and tendon rupture, especially
in older adults and those with a history of tendon disorders. A history of tendon rupture is a
contraindication.
RN ATI Pharmacology 2026 Retake Proctored
Exam WITH NGN Level 3 Passing Exam Questions
and Answers | 100% Pass Guaranteed | Graded
A+
1. A nurse is preparing to administer cefazolin to a client who has a history of a mild penicillin
allergy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Administer the medication without concern.
B. Monitor the client closely for a cross-sensitivity reaction.
C. Hold the medication and notify the provider.
D. Administer diphenhydramine before the cefazolin.
☑ Correct Answer: B
☑ Explanation: Cephalosporins share a beta-lactam ring with penicillins, so clients
with a penicillin allergy may have a cross-sensitivity reaction. The nurse should monitor closely
and notify the provider if a severe allergy is documented.
2. A nurse is administering IV vancomycin. The client develops flushing, rash, and hypotension.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Stop the infusion and administer epinephrine.
,2
B. Slow the infusion rate and notify the provider.
C. Continue the infusion and document the finding.
D. Administer a bolus of normal saline.
☑ Correct Answer: B
☑ Explanation: These findings indicate vancomycin infusion reaction (flushing, rash,
hypotension), which is managed by slowing the infusion rate. Epinephrine is for anaphylaxis, not
this reaction.
3. A nurse is monitoring a client receiving gentamicin. Which of the following laboratory values
should the nurse report?
A. Serum creatinine 1.0 mg/dL.
B. Peak gentamicin level 6 mcg/mL.
C. Trough gentamicin level 4 mcg/mL.
D. BUN 15 mg/dL.
☑ Correct Answer: C
☑ Explanation: A trough gentamicin level greater than 2 mcg/mL increases the risk of
,3
nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity. The nurse should report this. The other values are within normal
limits.
4. A nurse is administering penicillin G. Which of the following findings indicates anaphylaxis?
A. Urticaria and pruritus.
B. Wheezing and hypotension.
C. Nausea and vomiting.
D. Diarrhea and abdominal cramps.
☑ Correct Answer: B
☑ Explanation: Anaphylaxis is a severe hypersensitivity reaction characterized by
airway compromise (wheezing, stridor) and hypotension. Urticaria alone may indicate a mild
allergic reaction but not necessarily anaphylaxis.
5. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for metronidazole. Which of the
following instructions should the nurse include?
A. "Take this medication with an antacid."
B. "Avoid alcohol while taking this medication."
C. "Increase your intake of dairy products."
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D. "Take this medication at bedtime."
☑ Correct Answer: B
☑ Explanation: Metronidazole can cause a disulfiram-like reaction with alcohol,
leading to severe nausea, vomiting, flushing, and tachycardia. Clients should avoid alcohol
during and for 3 days after therapy.
6. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for levofloxacin.
Which of the following findings is a contraindication?
A. The client has a history of tendon rupture.
B. The client has a history of hypertension.
C. The client has a history of asthma.
D. The client has a history of diabetes.
☑ Correct Answer: A
☑ Explanation: Fluoroquinolones can cause tendinitis and tendon rupture, especially
in older adults and those with a history of tendon disorders. A history of tendon rupture is a
contraindication.