NSG 5544 South College -Fitzgerald NP Exam Review Post
Test Questions | 2026/2027 | Answers Correct | With
Complete Solutions
Presence of pseudohyphae on KOH prep.
Sue is a 39-year-old woman who presents with complaints of a
5-day history of vaginal itching, dysuria, and a white, curd-like
discharge. She mentions that she recently completed a short
course of oral corticosteroids for an asthma exacerbation.
Physical examination reveals erythema of the vulvovaginal area
but without an amine odor. The most likely finding on
microscopic exam would be:
Miconazole vaginal cream.
When considering treatment for Sue, first-line therapy can
include:
Pelvic ultrasound.
With positive findings from initial imaging and urinalysis,
ureteroscopy (C) or cystoscopy (D) can follow to locate and
remove the stone, when possible. Urodynamics are used to
evaluate bladder, sphincter, and urethra function and would not
be an essential part of the diagnostic process for renal stones
A 46-year-old man is being evaluated for suspected renal stones.
He complains of severe flank pain that comes in waves along
with painful urination and blood in the urine. He is otherwise
healthy with a BMI of 24 kg/m2. The initial work-up should
include:
,There was no injury.
A 35-year-old woman is diagnosed with a urinary tract infection.
Though her records indicate an allergy to sulfa medications, she
is prescribed TMP-SMX. When she appears at the pharmacy,
the pharmacist realizes the mistake and the prescription is
switched to nitrofurantoin. This does not describe a malpractice
scenario because:
Gestational hypertension.
A 27-year-old woman who is at 22-weeks’ gestation presents for
a routine prenatal visit. Today, her blood pressure is 160/84 mm
Hg. She has no history of hypertension and does not report any
unusual symptoms. Lab results do not reveal any abnormal
findings of proteinuria, liver enzymes, or LDH. The most likely
diagnosis is:
Oral alpha blocker.
A kidney stone of 2 mm is identified in the ureter. The most
appropriate first-line treatment can include:
Add a thiazide diuretic
The addition of a second agent is preferred over substituting
agents when the maximum tolerated dose of the first-line agent
provides inadequate antihypertensive effect (A). Though arbs
are considered a first-line agent, they are less effective among
African Americans when compared to calcium channel blockers
and thiazide diuretics (B). Spironolactone is not considered a
first-line agent and should be reserved when combinations of
first-line agents are inadequate in controlling blood pressure
,A 61-year-old African American woman is currently taking a
maximally tolerated dose of a calcium channel blocker for
hypertension. She is not reaching her blood pressure goal and
requires intensification of therapy. Which of the following is
most appropriate?
Vision dimming and distance vision problems
Presbyopia is a normal age-related vision change caused by
hardening of the lens and results in close vision problems and
requiring more lighting to read (A). Open-angle glaucoma
(OAG) results from a gradual increase in intraocular pressure
that can lead to optic atrophy. The most telling sign is loss of
peripheral vision (B). Distortion of central vision is the typical
finding with age-related maculopathy
Which of the following findings is most anticipated in a 77-year-
old with senile cataracts?
A 43-year-old who first reported symptoms 5 days ago
Which of the following individuals with suspected influenza
would be least likely to undergo influenza testing in the
outpatient setting?
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
Paulo is a 17-year-old male who is brought in for evaluation
after he reported experiencing dizziness during basketball
practice. Heart auscultation reveals a harsh mid-systolic
crescendo-decrescendo murmur that increases with standing. A
loud S4 is also noted. The most likely diagnosis is:
A cardiac referral is needed to assess the extent of heart disease.
, Paulo asks when he will be allowed to return to practice. The NP
responds:
Insulin.
A 12-year-old is diagnosed with type 1 diabetes after
experiencing unexplained weight loss, polyphagia, and
polydipsia over the past 3 months. First-line treatment should
consist of:
Increase the warfarin dose.
A 68-year-old man with atrial fibrillation is initiated on warfarin
therapy and comes to the clinic after one week for a blood test.
He reports that he has been taking his medication as directed.
Today, his INR is 1.2. The NP recommends:
No imaging needed
With normal neurological findings and the absence of “red
flag” signs, imaging is not recommended in the diagnosis of
LBP. Radiographs can be helpful if there is a high degree of
suspicion for spondylolisthesis, scoliosis, cancer, or fracture
(A). CT or MRI can be considered if radiculopathy is present,
indicated by pain radiating to the buttocks and legs (B). A bone
density scan is used to help make a diagnosis of osteoporosis
and would not be indicated here
Francisco is a 53-year-old man who presents with a complaint of
a 3-day history of low back pain following completion of a
landscaping project. He reports pain and stiffness with the back
as well as a sharp pain in the neck. He denies any pain radiating
down to the legs. Neurological examination is within normal
Test Questions | 2026/2027 | Answers Correct | With
Complete Solutions
Presence of pseudohyphae on KOH prep.
Sue is a 39-year-old woman who presents with complaints of a
5-day history of vaginal itching, dysuria, and a white, curd-like
discharge. She mentions that she recently completed a short
course of oral corticosteroids for an asthma exacerbation.
Physical examination reveals erythema of the vulvovaginal area
but without an amine odor. The most likely finding on
microscopic exam would be:
Miconazole vaginal cream.
When considering treatment for Sue, first-line therapy can
include:
Pelvic ultrasound.
With positive findings from initial imaging and urinalysis,
ureteroscopy (C) or cystoscopy (D) can follow to locate and
remove the stone, when possible. Urodynamics are used to
evaluate bladder, sphincter, and urethra function and would not
be an essential part of the diagnostic process for renal stones
A 46-year-old man is being evaluated for suspected renal stones.
He complains of severe flank pain that comes in waves along
with painful urination and blood in the urine. He is otherwise
healthy with a BMI of 24 kg/m2. The initial work-up should
include:
,There was no injury.
A 35-year-old woman is diagnosed with a urinary tract infection.
Though her records indicate an allergy to sulfa medications, she
is prescribed TMP-SMX. When she appears at the pharmacy,
the pharmacist realizes the mistake and the prescription is
switched to nitrofurantoin. This does not describe a malpractice
scenario because:
Gestational hypertension.
A 27-year-old woman who is at 22-weeks’ gestation presents for
a routine prenatal visit. Today, her blood pressure is 160/84 mm
Hg. She has no history of hypertension and does not report any
unusual symptoms. Lab results do not reveal any abnormal
findings of proteinuria, liver enzymes, or LDH. The most likely
diagnosis is:
Oral alpha blocker.
A kidney stone of 2 mm is identified in the ureter. The most
appropriate first-line treatment can include:
Add a thiazide diuretic
The addition of a second agent is preferred over substituting
agents when the maximum tolerated dose of the first-line agent
provides inadequate antihypertensive effect (A). Though arbs
are considered a first-line agent, they are less effective among
African Americans when compared to calcium channel blockers
and thiazide diuretics (B). Spironolactone is not considered a
first-line agent and should be reserved when combinations of
first-line agents are inadequate in controlling blood pressure
,A 61-year-old African American woman is currently taking a
maximally tolerated dose of a calcium channel blocker for
hypertension. She is not reaching her blood pressure goal and
requires intensification of therapy. Which of the following is
most appropriate?
Vision dimming and distance vision problems
Presbyopia is a normal age-related vision change caused by
hardening of the lens and results in close vision problems and
requiring more lighting to read (A). Open-angle glaucoma
(OAG) results from a gradual increase in intraocular pressure
that can lead to optic atrophy. The most telling sign is loss of
peripheral vision (B). Distortion of central vision is the typical
finding with age-related maculopathy
Which of the following findings is most anticipated in a 77-year-
old with senile cataracts?
A 43-year-old who first reported symptoms 5 days ago
Which of the following individuals with suspected influenza
would be least likely to undergo influenza testing in the
outpatient setting?
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
Paulo is a 17-year-old male who is brought in for evaluation
after he reported experiencing dizziness during basketball
practice. Heart auscultation reveals a harsh mid-systolic
crescendo-decrescendo murmur that increases with standing. A
loud S4 is also noted. The most likely diagnosis is:
A cardiac referral is needed to assess the extent of heart disease.
, Paulo asks when he will be allowed to return to practice. The NP
responds:
Insulin.
A 12-year-old is diagnosed with type 1 diabetes after
experiencing unexplained weight loss, polyphagia, and
polydipsia over the past 3 months. First-line treatment should
consist of:
Increase the warfarin dose.
A 68-year-old man with atrial fibrillation is initiated on warfarin
therapy and comes to the clinic after one week for a blood test.
He reports that he has been taking his medication as directed.
Today, his INR is 1.2. The NP recommends:
No imaging needed
With normal neurological findings and the absence of “red
flag” signs, imaging is not recommended in the diagnosis of
LBP. Radiographs can be helpful if there is a high degree of
suspicion for spondylolisthesis, scoliosis, cancer, or fracture
(A). CT or MRI can be considered if radiculopathy is present,
indicated by pain radiating to the buttocks and legs (B). A bone
density scan is used to help make a diagnosis of osteoporosis
and would not be indicated here
Francisco is a 53-year-old man who presents with a complaint of
a 3-day history of low back pain following completion of a
landscaping project. He reports pain and stiffness with the back
as well as a sharp pain in the neck. He denies any pain radiating
down to the legs. Neurological examination is within normal
